WBCS Main Examination Compulsory Question Paper V-2017 [The Constitution of India and Indian Economy including role and functions of RBI]
1. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List :
(A) When a party enjoys ⅔rd majority in the House.
(B) By the consent of the legislature of the State conncerned.
(C) When Rajya Sabha passes a Resolution by ⅔rd majority.
(D) With the consent of the President and Chief Justice of India.
2. A 'No-confidence Motion' in the Lok Sabha can be introduced by the support of at least
(A) 10% of the Lok Sabha members.
(B) 50% of the Lok Sabha members.
(C) By all the opposition members.
(D) By any single member of the Lok Sabha.
3. Sexual harassment of working women amounts to violation of the rights guaranteed by
(A) Articles 14,15, 23 (B) Articles 14,15, 21 (C) Articles 14,15,16 (D) Articles 13,14,15
4. In the Preamble of the Constitution of India the word 'Secular' was incorporated by
(A) 1st Amendment of the Constitution of India
(B) 15th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(C) 27th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(D) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India
5. UPSC submits it's Annual Report on it's work to
(A) The Parliament (B) The Union Home Minister (C) The President (D) The Chief Justice of India
6. The Chief Election Commissioner is
(A) Elected by Parliament
(B) Appointed by Home Minister
(C) Appointed by Prime Minister
(D) Appointed by President
7. The concept of 'Judicial Activism' has gained currency in India in
(A) 1960's (B) 1980's (C) 1990's (D) 1970's
8. Xth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) the Finance Commission (B) the Election Commission (C) defections (D) Other Backward Classes
9. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament ?
(A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
10. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every
(A) 2 years (B) 3 years (C) 5 years (D) 7 years
11. The Vote value of the voters in the President Election in India are based on the population count of the respective State for the year,
(A) 2010 (B) 1969 (C) 1971 (D) 1991
12. Seats to Lok Sabha are not reserved for
(A) Schedule Castes
(B) Schedule Tribes
(C) Schedule Tribes in Autonomous Districts of Assam
(D) Anglo-Indian
13. Article 340 of the Constitution of India deals with
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Backward Classes Commission
(D) UPSC
14. The UPSC has to serve only
(A) Selected States (B) Entire Nation (C) Union Territories (D) Depends on President's will
15. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by
(A) 69th Amendment (B) 75th Amendment (C) 81st Amendment (D) 52nd Amendment
16. Election to the Gram Panchayats are
(A) by indirect method
(B) by legislatures of the State
(C) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
(D) by Council of Ministers
17. The first Constitutional Amendment was challenged in the case
(A) Sankari Prasad v. UOI
(B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
18. National Development Council is
(A) Political body (B) Non-political body (C) Statutory body (D) None of the above
19. The distribution of power between Centre and the States is based on the scheme provided in
(A) Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909
(B) Montagui-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
20. The State List contains
(A) 96 subjects (B) 106 subjects (C) 66 subjects (D) 79 subjects
21. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land. It is preserved by
(A) The Cabinet (B) The Supreme Court (C) The Constituent Assembly (D) The Parliament
22. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
(A) Article 254 (B) Article 300 (C) Entry 42, List III (D) Article 156
23. The present strength of the Judges of the Supreme Court was fixed by
(A) The original Constitution (B) Parliament in 1958 (C) Parliament in 1977 (D) Parliament in 1986
24. Who expressed the view that 'Supreme Court of India has more powers than any other Supreme Court in any part of the world' ?
(A) Justice Khanna (B) Dr. B.M. Rao (C) K. M. Munshi (D) A. Krishna Iyer
25. The Supreme Court struck down a part of the Prevention detention Act in the
(A) Gopalan case (B) Golaknath case (C) Ramesh Thappar case (D) Kochumni case
26. Provision of Article 73 i.e. extent of executive power of the union confers upon the union which of the following phenomenon ?
(A) Power, jurisdiction and authority.
(B) Jurisdiction, constituent authority and power.
(C) Right, authority and jurisdiction.
(D) Inherent power, authority and jurisdiction.
27. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the uniform civil code for the citizens ?
(A) Article 44 (B) Article 21 (C) Article 37 (D) Article 45
28. High Court judges in India are appointed
(A) exclusively by the Collegium of the Supreme Court of India
(B) by National Judicial Appointment Commission
(C) Prime Minister in consultation with the Supreme Court of India
(D) by Parliament in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
29. Which one of the following rights, according to Dr. Ambedkar is the 'Heart and Soul' of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to education
(B) Right to freedom of religion
(C) Right to work
(D) Right to constitutional remedies
30. Amendment of the Constitution of India are made by exercise of
(A) Constitutional power of the Parliament
(B) Inherent power of the Parliament
(C) Legislative power of the Parliament
(D) Constituent power of the Parliament
31. Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law appears in
(A) Article 246 (B) Article 265 (C) Article 266 (D) Article 268
32. How many amendments of the constitution have been made till date ?
(A) 99 (B) 100 (C) 101 (D) 102
33. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed by which of the following constitutional authorities
(A) President
(B) President and Governor of a state
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
34. A jurist can be appointed in which of the Court below
(A) Supreme Court (B) High Court (C) In the District Court (D) Special Court
35. Article 14 of the Constitution of India is confined to
(A) The citizens of India only
(B) To any person
(C) To citizens of Common Wealth Countries
(D) None of the above
36. Which of the following pair of articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the oath or affirmation and impeachment of the President of India ?
(A) Article 60 & Article 61
(B) Article 62 & Article 63
(C) Article 99 & Article 100
(D) Article 72 & Article 73
37. The 1st Amendment to the Constitution of India inserted
(A) Article 31A, 31B and 9th Schedule
(B) Article 32 and 226
(C) Amended Article 246
(D) Abolished the jurisdiction of Privy Council
38. The Chairman of the Public Service Commission of a State can be removed from his office by
(A) The President of India
(B) The Governor of the State
(C) The Legislative Council of the State
(D) The High Court of the State
39. Which one of the following Writs literally means 'Under what authority' ?
(A) Habeas Corpus (B) Certiorari (C) Prohibition (D) Quo-warranto
40. Which of the following section of Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional by The Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Section 121 (B) Section 303 (C) Section 307 (D) Section 366
41. The power to issue appropriate writs for enforcement of rights conferred by PART - III of the Constitution of India may be given to any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction by
(A) exercise of legislative power of the Parliament
(B) promulgamation of an Ordinance
(C) passing a resolution in both the Houses
(D) parliament in consultation with the Supreme Court of India
42. The concept of 'Directive Principles of State Policy' is borrowed from
(A) Ireland . (B) England (C) Scotland (D) United Kingdom
43. In the event of changing the name of the State or for creation of a new State, the Constitution of India is required to be amended by Parliament by a
(A) simple majority as required under Articles 107 and 108.
(B) majority of total members of both the Houses under Article 368.
(C) special majority under Article 368.
(D) special majority after obtained opinion of the concerned State under Article 3 of the Constitution.
44. Who is to decide whether any matter is a matter where the Governor has to act in his discretion ?
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Supreme Court of India
(C) The High Court of the concerned state
(D) The Governor
45. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature ?
(A) Article 206 (B) Article 208 (C) Article 213 (D) Article 212
46. The Constitution Amendment Bills are initiated in
(A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (C) Either House (D) Rajya Sabha with prior approval from Lok Sabha
47. Which of the following legislation brought the character of Indian Government from 'Unitary' to 'Federal' ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
48. The Certificate to a Money Bill is signed by
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) The Leader of Opposition of the House of the People
(C) The Finance Minister of India
(D) The Speaker of the House of the People
49. The Freedom of Speech of a Member of Parliament during the sojourn of Session is
(A) almost absolute
(B) subject to restriction of Fundamental Right
(C) is regulated by the Parliament itself
(D) is similar to that of an advocate acting on behalf of his client
50. From which of the following Constitutions the Indian Constitution is not borrowed from
(A) Constitution of USA (B) Constitution of Germany (C) Constitution of Canada (D) Constitution of China
51. The Fundamental Rights have
(A) retrospective effect
(B) have no retrospective effect under Article 13(1) or 13(3)(b)
(C) have only future effect
(D) None of the above
52. By which amendment Act 'Unity of the Nation' was substituted by 'Unity and integrity of the Nation' in the Preamble of the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (B) 45th Amendment Act, 1980
(C) 44th Amendment Act, 1979 (D) None of the above
53. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Jai Prakash Narayan (C) C. Rajagopalachari (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
54. Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal ?
(A) Government of India Act, 1919
(B) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Council Act, 1909
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
55. Under Article 16, the words 'any employment or office applies'
(A) private employments
(B) only to public employments
(C) both public and private employments
(D) None of the above
56. The First Commentary to the Constitution of India is written
(A) Dr. D. D. Basu (B) Justice Vivian Bose (C) Dr. Bijon Kumar Mukherjee (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
57. Right to work in India is
(A) Fundamental right (B) Directive Principle (C) Constitutional duty
(D) Not a fundamental right but can be claimed after employment
58. Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion, is subject to
(A) Public order, morality, health and other Fundamental Rights.
(B) Public order, morality and health.
(C) Public order, morality, health and sovereignty and integrity of lndia.
(D) Public order, morality and Secularism.
59. Which one of the following is Bulwark of the personal freedom ?
(A) Writ of Mandamus (B) Writ of Habeus Corpus (C) Writ of Certiorari (D) Writ of Evocation
60. Consider the following statements :
Directives Principles of State Policy are
(1) directives in the nature of ideals of the State
(2) directives administering and legislating the policy of State
(3) justiciable rights of the Citizens
(A) 1 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 (D) 3
61. In Part IVA of the Constitution of India every Indian citizen has how many Fundamental Duties ?
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 8
62. The term 'equal pay for equal work' is a
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Fundamental Right
(C) Matter of State Policy
(D) Is a matter of Labour Law
63. In Article 45, the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of
(A) 8 (B) 15 (C) 12 (D) 6
64. In the Election of the President, each Member of the Electoral College has
(A) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as there are candidates
(B) one vote as many votes there are candidates
(C) one vote with particular value attached to it
(D) one vote
65. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Executive power (B) Legislative power (C) Constituent power (D) Quasi-judicial power
66. The term of the office of Vice President is
(A) five years from the date on which he takes oath of the office.
(B) five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
(C) five years from the date of his election is announced.
(D) five years later from the date on which he enters upon his office.
67. Give correct response to :
(A) The President of India can seek re-election as many times under the Letter of Constitution, but there is well
established convention that he should not seek re-election for more than two terms.
(B) The President of India is ineligible for re-election.
(C) The President of India cannot be re-elected for more than three times.
(D) The President of India is eligible for re-election as many times he deires.
68. Which of the following statement(s) is / are not true regarding 'Inter State Council' ?
(A) It is required to meet at least thrice every year.
(B) It is established under Article 265 of the Constitution of India.
(C) Decision of the Chairman is bound by the Consensus.
(D) Decision on all questions are required to be taken in Consensus.
69. The expression 'Prosecution' under Article 20(2) contemplates
(A) the proceeding should not be under a law which creates offences.
(B) a person must be accused of an offence.
(C) guilt is nor criterion for prosecution.
(D) prosecution is possible only after the final verdict from the Court.
70. Which of the following are prohibited without the Consent of the President of India according to Article 18
(A) conferment of title.
(B) accepting any title from any Foreign State.
(C) accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any Foreign State,
(D) receiving title with money.
71. Which among the following states has only one House i.e. Legislative Assembly :
(A) Assam (B) West Bengal (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Bihar
72. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India as it stands today deals with
(A) power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution.
(B) authority of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India.
(C) procedure for Amendment of the Constitution to be followed by the Parliament.
(D) passing and Ratification of Amendment Bills by State Legislature.
73. Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made in this Article was inserted in Article 368 by
(A) Constitution Act (25th Amendment)
(B) Constitution Act (24th Amendment)
(C) Constitution Act (45th Amendment)
(D) Constitution Act (42nd Amendment)
74. The Constitution 96th Amendment Act, 2011 altered the language of Oriya in 8th Schedule as
(A) Oriyan (B) Odiya (C) Orriya (D) Odia
75. Expression 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India has been added by taking the views of
(A) Marx and Laski (B) Marx and Gandhi (C) Rousseau and Gandhi (D) Gandhi and Hegel
76. List II (Union List) in Seventh schedule contain how many items ?
(A) 76 (B) 87 (C) 97 (D) 99
77. Minimum how many days notice is required to move the resolution to remove the deputy Chairman of the Council of
States ?
(A) 10 days (B) 14 days (C) 20 days (D) 30 days
78. Under Article 321 of the Constitution of India the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) President of India (B) Parliament (C) Chairman of the Commission (D) Ministry of Home Affairs
79. The President nominates ------- Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
(A) 5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 7
80. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of
(A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Parliament (D) Chief Minister
81. The Constitution of India provides special procedure for
(A) Financial Bills (B) Money Bills (C) Both Money and Financial Bills (D) None of the above
82. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) 14 days (B) 3 months (C) 6 months (D) None of the above
83. Money Bill can be
(A) Invalid by Rajya Sabha
(B) Invalid by both the Houses
(C) Rajya Sabha can reject the bill
(D) None of the above
84. The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by the President from amongst the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in
(A) Literature, science, art and social science
(B) Literature, art and law
(C) Literature, science and philosophy
(D) Literature, science and art
85. Council of Ministers can be suspended during session
(A) By Prime Minister of India
(B) By Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) By Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) None of the above
86. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India
(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament of India
(C) The Governor of a State
(D) The Prime Minister of India
87. The Ordinance issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by
(A) President (B) Chief Minister (C) State Legislature (D) None of the above
88. If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office before the expiry of his term, he may address his resignation to
(A) Chief Minister of the State
(B) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President
89. The power to grant pardons, reprieves or remissions of punishment under Article 72 in exercised by the President of
India
(A) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(B) on his own as Head of the Union
(C) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(D) in constitution with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet
90. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Executive Power (B) Legislative Power (C) Constituent Power (D) Quasi-Judicial Power
91. The President's Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period
(A) One year (B) Two years (C) Six months (D) Nine months
92. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Leader of the majority party
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Senior most Governor
93. Who among the following holds his / her office at the pleasure of the President ?
(A) Chairman of UPSC
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
94. Power of Governor to grant pardon etc. and to suspend, rent or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in
(A) Article 159 (B) Article 161 (C) Article 162 (D) Article 163
95. All matters relating to the election of the Vice President including any election petition shall be enquired into by
(A) Election Tribunal specifically constituted the purpose
(B) Supreme Court
(C) A Committee constituted for the purpose by Rajya Sabha
(D) Any High Court where the petition is moved
96. Which Article of the Constitution of India prescribes power to The President to issue Ordinance ?
(A) Article 123 (B) Article 72 (C) Article 125 (D) Article 254
97. After the judgment of Minerva Mills v. UOI, the provision of Article 31C means :
(A) All Directive Principles supersede fundamental rights
(B) No Directive Principles can supersede the fundamental rights
(C) The Directive Principles contained in Article 39(a) supersede the fundamental rights
(D) The Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b), (c) supersede the fundamental rights
98. 'Provisions relating to fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be only promoted by constitutional methods. But they can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes. In which of the cases was this principle enunciated
(A) Motilal v. State of UP
(B) Civil Rights Committee v. UOI
(C) Head Masters v. UOI
(D) Magan Bhai v. UOI
99. Fundamental duties under Article 51A is confined to
(A) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
(B) Public servants
(C) All those who run public sector enterprise
(D) Citizens of India
100. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed
(A) there is remedy in court
(B) there is remedy in Lok Adalat
(C) there is no remedy by judicial proceedings
(D) there is remedy in the court of Special Executive Magistrate
101. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme was implemented on
(A) Oct. 1997 (B) Oct. 1998 (C) Oct. 1999 (D) Oct. 2000
102. What is the mainstay of Indian economy ?
(A) Manufacturing (B) Business (C) Public sector (D) Agriculture
103. Contribution of agriculture to Gross National Products is approximately
(A) 14% (B) 15% (C) 16.5% (D) 17.5%
104. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves ?
(A) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights and loans from foreign countries
(B) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(C) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(D) Foreign-currency asests, govt. holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
105. Consider the following statements :
(1) India's GDP is more than its GNP.
(2) Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is positive for India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 or 2
106. The largest percentage of bonded labour in India belongs to
(A) scheduled castes (B) scheduled tribes (C) other backward classes (D) None of the above
107. When did the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) come into being ?
(A) 1973 (B) 1975 (C) 1980 (D) 1981
108. When did India become a member of the IMF ?
(A) 1947 (B) 1945 (C) 1960 (D) 1951
109. Land Development banks in India are owned by the
(A) RBI (B) State Governments (C) Commercial Banks (D) Co-operative Societies
110. Which of the following taxes is levied and collected by the union, but assigned to the states ?
(A) Sales tax (B) Octroi (C) Excise (D) Consignment tax
111. Through open market operation, the RBI purchase and sell
(A) foreign exchange (B) gold (C) government securities (D) All of the above
112. In India, inflation is measured by
(A) wholesale price index number
(B) consumer price index number for urban non-manual workers
(C) net national product at market prices
(D) gross national product at market prices
113. When, for the first time, did the Prime Minister of India announce the 20-point Economic Programme ?
(A) 1973 (B) 1974 (C) 1975 (D) 1976
114. The income tax in India is
(A) indirect and progressive
(B) direct and proportional
(C) direct and progressive
(D) indirect and proportional
115. The largest revenue in India is obtained from
(A) Sales Tax (B) Direct Taxes (C) Excise Duties (D) None of the above
116. One of the problems in calculating the national income in India correctly is
(A) under-employment (B) inflation (C) non-monetised consumption (D) low savings
117. India's wage policy is based on
(A) Cost of living (B) Standard of living (C) Productivity (D) None of the above
118. The most important source of capital formation in India has seen
(A) Household savings
(B) Public sector savings
(C) Government revenue surpluses
(D) Corporate savings
119. When the Reserve Bank of India increases the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) ?
(A) When the Indian economy have high rate of inflation
(B) When the Indian economy have low rate of inflation
(C) The demand of goods and services is very low
(D) None of the above
120. What kind of convertability of currency is permitted in India ?
(A) Capital account (B) Current account (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Partial in both (A) and (B)
121. Who Imposes corporation tax in India ?
(A) State govt. (B) Central govt. (C) Both State and Central govt. (D) Local govt.
122. What kind of unemployment is found in the agricultural sector of India ?
(A) Situational (B) Voluntary (C) Frictional (D) Disguised
123. Which of the following tax is imposed by the Central government but collected and kept by the State governments ?
(A) Excise duty (B) Custom duty (C) Stamp duty (D) Wealth tax
124. The data of estimation of India's National Income is issued by
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Data Centre
(C) Central Statistical Organisation
(D) None of the above
125. Which of the following sector is not covered under the Bharat Nirman Programme ?
(A) Health & Nutrition (B) Irrigation (C) Road (D) Housing
126. Which Indian state gives highest income tax collection to the Government of India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Maharashtra (D) Goa
127. Which is not added in the calculation of national income of India ?
(A) The value of goods and services
(B) The sold value of the old fridge
(C) Services rendered by the housewives
(D) Both (B) and (C)
128. How much does the primary sector contribute to India's GDP ?
(A) 26% (B) 20% (C) 53% (D) 14%
129. What base year is used to calculate per capita income in India ?
(A) 2004-05 (B) 2011-12 (C) 2001-02 (D) 2014-15
130. Who among the following did not estimate the incidence of poverty in India ?
(A) B. S. Minhas (B) P. K. Bardhan (C) V. M. Dandekar and N. Rath (D) Raj Krishna
131. In which of the Five Year Plan, the weaker sections of the society got priority ?
(A) 5th (B) 4th (C) 3rd (D) None of the above
132. During which Five Year Plan was the total expenditure on agriculture the highest ?
(A) 1st (B) 2nd (C) 3rd (D) 4th
133. What is the duration of the revised 6th National Development Plan ?
(A) 1974-79 (B) 1978-83 (C) 1980-85 (D) 2013-16
134. Success of 4th plan was obstructed by
(A) problem of Bengal refugees (B) war with Pakistan (C) poor monsoon (D) All of the above
135. During which Five year plan did prices show a decline ?
(A) 1st (B) 3rd (C) 5th (D) 6th
136. India opted for 'mixed economy' in
(A) framing of the constitution
(B) Industrial Policy of 1948
(C) Second Five Year Plan
(D) None of the above
137. A rolling plan is a plan for
(A) one year (B) two years (C) three years (D) five years
138. The government imposes taxes to
(A) check the accumulation of wealth among the rich
(B) run the machinery of state
(C) uplift weaker sections
(D) None of the above
139. In India, which of the following affects poverty line the most ?
(A) Level of prices (B) Production quantum (C) Per capita income (D) Quantum of gold reserve
140. Which of the following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capita income in India ?
1. High capital - output ratio
2. High rate of growth of population
3. High rate of capital formation
4. High level of fiscal deficits
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 4 (D) All of the above
141. National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) was established in
(A) 1947 (B) 1948 (C) 1949 (D) 1950
142. Abid Hussain Committee is related to
(A) reform in taxes
(B) reform in government projects
(C) reform in small industries
(D) reform in middle level industries
143. Which state has the highest per capita income in India ?
(A) Delhi (B) Punjab (C) Bihar (D) West Bengal
144. The mineral in which India depends largely on imports is
(A) iron ore (B) mercury (C) mica (D) bauxite
145. India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of
(A) Iron (B) Tea (C) Handloom (D) Textiles
146. Which one among the following formulate the fiscal policy in India ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) The Reserve Bank of India
(D) Ministry of Finance
147. States each maximum revenue through
(A) Tax Fines (B) Customs (C) License sales (D) Commercial Taxes
148. In India, the State Financial Corporation have given assistance mainly to develop
(A) Irrigation projects
(B) Small-scale industries
(C) Medium-scale industries
(D) Medium & small-scale industries
149. Which five year plan focused on 'growth with social justice and equity' ?
(A) Ninth Five Year Plan (B) Eighth Five Year Plan (C) Seventh Five Year Plan (D) Sixth Five Year Plan
150. First five year plan was based on
(A) Harrod - Domar model (B) P. C. Mahalanobis model (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
151. The average rate of domestic savings (gross) for the Indian economy is currently estimated to be in the range of
(A) 15% to 20% (B) 20% to 25% (C) 25% to 30% (D) 30% to 35%
152. National Agricultural Insurance scheme replacing comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme was introduced in the
year
(A) 1997 (B) 1998 (C) 1999 (D) 2000
153. Revenue of the state governments are raised from the following sources, except
(A) entertainment tax (B) expenditure tax (C) agricultural income tax (D) land revenue
154. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India ?
(A) Chemicals other than fertilisers (B) Services sector (C) Food processing (D) Telecommunication
155. Tax-structure in India has become regressive in character as
(A) share of direct taxes and indirect taxes are same
(B) share of direct taxes increasing and indirect taxes decreasing
(C) share of direct taxes decreasing and indirect taxes increasing
(D) share of direct taxes and indirect taxes both falling
156. Deficit financing is termed as
(A) inflationary method of financing
(B) deflationary method of financing
(C) hyper-inflationary method of financing
(D) financing development expenditure
157. The Narsimham Committee on the Financial System of India made its recommendations in two phases
(A) 1991 and 1999 (B) 1991 and 1998 (C) 1990 and 1999 (D) 1990 and 1998
158. The rate at which RBI lends to the banking system is
(A) Bank Rate (B) Statutory Liquidity Rate (C) Cash Reserve Ratio (D) None of the above
159. The New Industrial Policy in India was announced in 2 phases
(A) 24 July, 1992; 6 August 1992
(B) 6 July, 1991; 24 August 1991
(C) 24 July, 1991; 6 August 1991
(D) 6 July, 1992; 24 August 1991
160. Under the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP Act) 1969, those firms were classified as monopolies or MRTP firms which have
(A) assets above a certain size
(B) high expenditure in research & development
(C) transfer-pricing
(D) marketing services
161. The objective of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 is
(A) enhance the livelihood & security of rural people by generating wage employment through works that develop infrastructure base of that area
(B) to provide financial assistance and technical advice for generation of employment in rural areas
(C) to impart new technical skill and upgrade the traditional skill of rural people
(D) to generate employment in health, primary education, drinking water, housing and rural roads in rural areas
162. A landmark in the evolution of agricultural finance is the establishment of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development which was set up in the year
(A) 1980 (B) 1986 (C) 1982 (D) 1985
163. Sources of agricultural credit for India are
(A) Co-operative credit (B) Commercial bank credit (C) Government loans (D) All of the above
164. For India, the government has taken the following measures for improving the conditions of agricultural workers
(A) Minimum wages (B) Resettlement of land (C) Abolition of bonded labour (D) All of the above
165. The thrust of land reforms in India has been in respect of the three aspects of the agrarian system which are
(A) land tenurial system, strengthening legal system and high investment
(B) land tenurial system, redistribution of land and consolidation of scattered holding
(C) ensuring people's participation, co-operative farming and high investment
(D) None of the above
166. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite of three indicators such as
(A) longevity, educational attainment and standard of living
(B) longevity, poverty and change in output
(C) growth, poverty and educational attainment
(D) poverty, standard of living and educational attainment
167. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risks coverage by Indian farmers in
(A) mixed cropping (B) dry farming (C) relay cropping (D) share cropping
168. What was the main objective of Green Revolution in India ?
(A) To increase the extent of cash crop cultivation
(B) To increase the area of Green forest under social forestry scheme
(C) Modernisation of agriculture through science and technology
(D) To introduce the Japanese method of paddy cultivation
169. From which country India adopted the Five Year Plans ?
(A) USSR (B) USA (C) Australia (D) Germany
170. An ad valorem duty is a tax on the basis of
(A) the unit of the commodity
(B) the advertisement expenditure
(C) the price of a commodity
(D) None of the above
171. Government imposes taxes to
(A) run the machinery of the state
(B) uplift weaker sections
(C) check the accumulation of wealth among the rich
(D) None of the above
172. Mixed economy means an economy where
(A) there is co-existence of public sector along with private sector.
(B) both agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the state.
(C) economy is controlled by military as well as civilian live.
(D) there is importance of small scale industries along with heavy industries.
173. Which bank provides Financial assistance for Export and Import ?
(A) RBI (B) NABARD (C) EXlM Bank (D) SIDBI
174. Which Five-Year-Plan was terminated before the completion of its period ?
(A) Fifth (B) Sixth (C) Seventh (D) Eighth
175. In India which of the following measures of money denotes the Broad Money ?
(A) M1 (B) M2 (C) M3 (D) M4
176. Which of the following statement is not correct about INDIA VISION 2020 ?
(A) It expects elimination of poverty, unemployment and illiteracy by 2020
(B) It expects that India's per capita income will get down by 2020
(C) Environment situation will remain as unbalanced as today
(D) It was designed by Dr. Sam Pitroda
177. Who has the authority to mint the coins in India ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Ministry of Finance (C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (D) Ministry of Affairs
178. Which of the following is the biggest contributor of foreign exchange reserve of India ?
(A) Foreign currency assets (B) Gold (C) Reserve tranche with IMF (D) Special drawing rights (SDR)
179. Which one of the following is / are a / an indicator of the financial health of a country ?
(i) GDP (ii) PPP (iii) FDI in a year
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) All (i), (ii) & (iii)
180. Which one of the following is a driving force influencing the industrial growth of an economy ?
(A) Economic factors only (B) Investment only (C) Innovation / Market base only (D) All of the above
181. In India, the concepts of 'minimum needs' and 'anti-poverty programmes' were the innovations of
(A) Fourth Five Year Plan (B) Fifth Five Year Plan (C) Sixth Five Year Plan (D) Eighth Five Year Plan
182. In which sector, the Public Sector is most dominant in India ?
(A) Transport
(B) Commercial banking
(C) Steel production
(D) Organised term-lending financial institutions
183. For internal financing of Five Year Plans, the government depends on
(A) taxation only
(B) public borrowing and deficit financing
(C) taxation and public borrowing
(D) taxation, public borrowing and deficit financing
184. In the context of India's Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialisation, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
(A) Tenth Plan (B) Eighth Plan (C) Sixth Plan (D) Fourth Plan
185. Which of the following indicate economic growth through Five Year Plans ?
(A) Rise in national income and per capita income
(B) Development of railways and roadways
(C) Development of education and health services
(D) Development of industrial towns and industrial estates
186. 'Globalisation of Indian economy' means :
(A) stepping up external borrowings
(B) establishing Indian shopping malls in abroad
(C) giving up programmes of import substitution
(D) having minimum possible restriction on economic relations with other countries
187. The basic feature of the Rolling Plans was that
(A) revision of the achievement of previous year
(B) no physical target were visualised
(C) no financial target except in the term of annual plans was envisaged
(D) annual fluctuations in prices and major economic developments could be considered while fixing target
188. The contribution of agriculture to India's economy is
(A) constant (B) increasing (C) decreasing (D) None of the above
189. In which one of the following Five Year Plans the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP (at factor cost) was less than the target set ?
(A) Sixth Five Year Plan (B) Seventh Five Year Plan (C) Eighth Five Year Plan (D) Ninth Five Year Plan
190. India's economic planning cannot be said to be
(A) Indicative (B) imperative (C) limited (D) democratic
191. How much population is living below poverty line in India ?
(A) Approx. 23.6% (B) Approx. 25% (C) Approx. 26% (D) Approx. 27%
192. How much-interest is paid by the RBI on the money deposited under the CRR measure ?
(A) Equal to the rate of CRR
(B) More than the CRR
(C) Less than the CRR
(D) No interest is paid by the RBI
193. India is regarded as a country with 'Demographic Dividend'. This is due to
(A) its high population in the age group below 15 years
(B) its high population in the age group of 15-64 years
(C) its high population in the age group above 65 years
(D) its high total population
194. In the State of India, the State Financial Corporations have given assistance mainly to develop
(A) agricultural farms
(B) cottage industry
(C) large-Scale industries
(D) medium and small scale industries
195. States earn maximum revenue through
(A) land revenue (B) custom revenue (C) commeircial taxes (D) excise duties on intoxicants
196. The Co-operative Credit Societies have a
(A) two-tier structure (B) three-tier structure (C) four-tier structure (D) five-tier structurje
197. The Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) came into existance in
(A) 1984 (B) 1986 (C) 1987 (D) 1989
198. Foreign Direct Investment ceilings in the telecom sector have been raised from 74% to
(A) 80 % (B) 83 % (C) 90 % (D) 100 %
199. Since 1983, RBl's responsibility with respect to regional rural banks was transferred to
(A) ARDC (B) SBI (C) NABARD (D) PACs
200. Redistribution policies geared to reduce economic inequalities include
(A) progressive tax policies (B) land reforms (C) rural development policies (D) All of |he above
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