WBCS Main Exam Compulsory Question Paper V -2018 [The Constitution of India and Indian Economy including role and functions of RBI]
1. Which among the following state has highest number of Export Oriented Units in India ?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Maharashtra (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh
2. The Tobin tax, initially suggested, by James Tobin was a tax on which among the following transactions ?
(A) Property Transactions (B) Currency Transactions (C) Industrial Transactions (D) All of the above
3. Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) is a —— .
(A) Money Market Instrument
(B) Monetary Policy Instrument
(C) Investment fund
(D) Capital Market Instrument
4. India's first operational special economic zone (SEZ) is located at
(A) Ahamadabad (B) Surat (C) Jaipur (D) Indore
5. The Government launched the UDYAMI helpline for which among the following ?
(A) Large capital industries
(B) Female entrepreneur
(C) Farmers introducing technology in farming
(D) Micro, small & medium size enterprises
6. What are the General Anti-Avoidance Rules ?
(A) GAAR is a set of rules aimed at curbing aggressive tax planning.
(B) GAAR is a set of rules aimed at curbing money laundering by Indians to foreign countries.
(C) GAAR is a set of rules aimed at regulating investments by Indians in foreign countries.
(D) GAAR is a set of rules aimed at regulating investments by Foreigners in India.
7. National Small Savings Fund is a part of which among the following ?
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Public Account of India
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) Prime Minister's Relief Fund
8. Public Distribution System (PDS) means distribution of essential commodities to a large number of people through a network of Fair Price Shops on a recurring basis. The Commodities distributed under PDS are
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Sugar (4) Pulses (5) Kerosene.
Select the correct option:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1,2, 3 and 4 (C) 1,2, 3 and 5 (D) All of the above
9. The concept of 'Universal Banking' was implemented in India on the recommendations of
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(B) H.R. Khan Committee
(C) S. Padmanabhan Committee
(D) Y.H. Malegam Committee
10. Union Budget is generally presented in which of the following month ?
(A) January (B) February (C) July (D) December
11. What does 'Revenue Neutral Tax Rule' means in reference to GST ?
(A) The rate at which tax revenues for States and Centre will remain same as before GST.
(B) The tax rate will remain the same for Central and State.
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
12. Read the statements
(i) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, recognised home buyers as financial creditors to real estate developers.
(ii) Home buyers will get due representation in the committee of creditors.
(iii) The amended Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code specifies home buyers will be treated as secured creditors.
Which statements are correct in reference to Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018 ?
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) Only (i) and (iii) are correct.
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are conect.
(D) All statements are correct.
13. According to RBI's latest report, Import Cover of the country in December, 2017 is of how many months ?
(A) 12 months (B) 10.8 months (C) 15 months (D) 19 months
14. Which is a nodal ministry for Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme ?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(D) Niti Aayog
15. "Golden Handshake Scheme" is associated with
(A) Inviting foreign companies
(B) Private investment in public enterprises
(C) Establishing Joint Enterprises
(D) Voluntary retirement
16. The main objective of TRYSEM was
(A) to train rural youth for self-employment.
(B) to train urban youth for self-employment.
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
17. Narshimham Committee recommendations are regarding which sector ?
(A) Banking (B) Industries (C) Rural (D) Service
18. The apex organisation of Industrial finance in India is
(A) IDBI (B) RBI (C) ICICI (D) IFCI
19. Agriculture income tax is assigned to the State Government by
(A) Finance Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Inter-state Council
(D) Constitution of India
20. As per 2011 Census, the Indian State with highest literacy rate is
(A) Goa (B) Kerala (C) Mizoram (D) Tripura
21. Women to men ratio in India as per 2011 Census is
(A) 920 : 1000 (B) 930 : 1000 (C) 940 : 1000 (D) 980 : 1000
22. The Government of India has established NITI Ayog to replace the
(A) Human Rights Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Law Commission
(D) Planning Commission
23. NABARD was established in the
(A) Fourth Five Year Plan
(B) Fifth Five Year Plan
(C) Sixth Five Year Plan
(D) Eighth Five Year Plan
24. GDP at factor cost is
(A) GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies
(B) GNP minus depreciation allowances
(C) NNP plus depreciation allowances
(D) GDP minus subsidies plus indirect taxes
25. What is FEMA ?
(A) First Exchange Management Act
(B) Foreign Exchequer Management Act
(C) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(D) Foreign Evaluation Management Act
26. The increase in oil seeds production was due to
(A) White revolution (B) Yellow revolution (C) Green revolution (D) Brown revolution
27. Select the correct answer about the Indian states in Health-Sector :
(A) Kerala is the best performer in term of the expectancy at birth (both male and female) in last decade.
(B) Madhya Pradesh the worst in terms of life expectancy at birth (both male and female) in last five years.
(C) The highest birth rate in India is found in Goa.
(D) Both the statement given in (A) and (B) are correct.
28. Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Sikkim (C) Assam (D) West Bengal
29. Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule ?
(A) Late Lajpat Rai (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Dadabhai Naoroji
30. How many banks were nationalised in 1969 ?
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
31. Black Revolution is related to
(A) Fish production (B) Coal production (C) Crude oil production (D) Mustard production
32. SIDBI stands for
(A) Small Industrial Development Banker Institute
(B) Small Industries Design Bank of India
(C) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(D) Small Innovation Development Banker's Institute
33. The one rupee note bears the signature of
(A) RBI Governor (B) President of India (C) Finance Minister (D) Finance Secretary
34. JAM trinity refers to the Government of India initiative to plug the leakage and deliver direct benefits to India'a poor in form of Direct Subsidy Transfer. The 'J.A.M.' stands for
(A) Jan-Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobility
(B) Jan-Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile
(C) Jan-Dhan, Ayush, Mobility
(D) None of the above
35. Consider the following statements and identify the right ones :
i) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture has been conceptualized to recognize the challenge of climate change to Indian agriculture.
ii) It is one of the eight missions under the NAPCC.
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
36. India is said to be in the second stage of demographic transition because
(A) both birth and death rates are high.
(B) birth rate is high but death rate is declining due to improving healthcare.
(C) death rates and birth rates are falling.
(D) None of the above
37. Who is the originator of Green Revolution in India ?
(A) Normal E. Borlaug (B) M S Swaminathan (C) Garry Backer (D) None of the above
38. The biggest public sector undertaking in India is
(A) Iron and Steel plants (B) Airways (C) Railways (D) Roadways
39. Fresh evaluation of every item of expenditure from the very beginning of each financial year is called
(A) Fresh budgeting
(B) Deficit budgeting
(C) Performance budgeting
(D) Zero-based budgeting
40. Fiscal Deficit in Union budget means
(A) the difference between current expenditure and current revenue.
(B) net increase in Union government's borrowings from RBI.
(C) the sum of budgetary deficit and net increase in internal and external borrowings.
(D) the sum of monetised deficit and budgetary deficit.
41. In India GDP is higher than GNP because
(A) import is higher than exports.
(B) capital inflow is higher than capital outflow.
(C) net factor income is negative.
(D) government expenditure is more than income.
42. National Income of India is compiled by
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Indian Statistical Institute
(C) National Development Council
(D) Central Statistical Organisation
43. The basic regulatory authority for mutual funds and stock exchange lies with
(A) Government of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(D) Stock Exchange
44. People below poverty line in India are classified as such based on whether
(A) they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket.
(B) they get work for a minimum number of days in a year.
(C) they belong to minority groups.
(D) their daily wages follows below prescribed minimum wages.
45. All taxes come under
(A) Revenue receipts (B) Capital receipts (C) Public debt (D) Both (A) and (B)
46. The main function of EXIM bank is
(A) to help RBI in regulation of foreign exchange.
(B) to prevent unlicensed transaction.
(C) to promote exports and curtail imports.
(D) to conserve foreign exchange.
47. The liabilities of commercial bank are
(i) time deposits (ii) security holdings (iii) demand deposits (iv) advances from central bank
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (i)
48. Which of the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRB) in India is correct ?
i) The basis aim of setting up RRBs is to develop rural economy.
ii) The area of RRBs is limited to a specific region comprising one or more districts.
iii) RRBs are sponsored by Commercial Banks.
Select the answer.
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) only (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii)
49. Main argument in favour of small scale and cottage industries in India is that
(A) cost of production is low.
(B) they require small capital investment.
(C) they advance the goal of equitable distribution of wealth.
(D) they generate large volume of employment.
50. Bank rate is the rate at which
(A) a bank lends to public.
(B) RBI lends to public.
(C) Government of India lends to other countries.
(D) RBI lends to commercial banks.
51. Xth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) the Finance Commission
(B) the Election Commission
(C) Other Backward Classes
(D) defections
52. Chairman and other members of the Union and State Public Service Commissions are appointed by
(A) the President.
(B) the President and Governor of respective States.
(C) the Prime Minister and Chief Minister of respective States.
(D) Both (A) & (C)
53. The largest committee of Parliament of India is
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertaking
(D) Joint Parliamentary Committee
54. The members of UPSC hold the office
(A) during the pleasure of President.
(B) as long as they enjoy the confidence in Parliament.
(C) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years.
(D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years.
55. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Office of President and Vice President
(D) All the above
56. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chairman of UPSC
(C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme Court
57. The Chief Election Commissioner is
(A) appointed by Home Minister
(B) appointed by Prime Minister
(C) elected by Parliament
(D) appointed by the President
58. The special status of Jammu & Kashmir implies the state as
(A) a separate judiciary
(B) a separate constitution
(C) a separate defense force
(D) All the above
59. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that 'Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution' ?
(A) In re Keshwananda Bharti (B) In re Golaknath case (C) In re Swarn Singh (D) In re Maneka Gandhi
60. Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
61. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the
(A) Canadian Constitution (B) Italian Constitution (C) French Constitution (D) Constitution of USA
62. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties ?
(A) USA (B) UK (C) Erstwhile USSR (D) Canada
63. The British, conceded the demand for partition of India under
(A) Cripps Mission (B) Mountbatten Plan, 1947 (C) Simla Pact, 1945 (D) Cabinet Mission Plan
64. The first Session of the Constituent Assembly was held on
(A) December 9,1946 (B) November 26, 1949 (C) August 15, 1947 (D) January 26, 1946
65. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(A) Bicameral legislature
(B) Dyarchy of centre and the provinces
(C) Provincial autonomy
(D) All India Federation
66. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the
(A) British Parliament (B) State Legislature (C) Federal Legislature (D) Governor-General
67. Quit India movement was declared by the Indian National Congress in Bombay session of ACCCC on
(A) August 8, 1942 (B) August 9, 1945 (C) July 18, 1947 (D) January 26, 1947
68. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had
(A) original jurisdiction only
(B) appellate jurisdiction only
(C) advisory jurisdiction only
(D) All the above
69. For the first time, the system of appeals from India to Privy Council in England was introduced by the Charter of
(A) 1608 (B) 1683 (C) 1726 (D) 1833
70. Under the Charter of 1687, a Mayor's Court was established at Madras. The Mayor had to be
(A) elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year.
(B) nominated by the company.
(C) senior-most Alderman to be next year.
(D) nominated by the company on the recommendation of the outgoing Mayor.
71. The East India Company was established by the British Crown in the year
(A) 1600 AD (B) 1605 AD (C) 1726 AD (D) 1857 AD
72. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving question of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
(A) Article 156 (B) Article 254 (C) Article 300 (D) Entry 42, List III
73. The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to
I. Union List II. State List III. Concurrent List.
Codes :
(A) I (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I, II and III
74. "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly". The doctrine relates to
(A) implied powers (B) ancillary power (C) pith and substance (D) colourable legislation
75. When the Supreme Court sits to determine any question involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or for tendering its advice, the minimum number of judges to constitute the Bench should be
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 13
76. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Governor of a State
(D) The Parliament of India
77. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President ?
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Chairman of the UPSC
78. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General ?
(A) Article 78 (B) Article 148 (C) Article 178 (D) Article 238
79. The Parliament of India consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
80. Total strength of the Council of States consists of
(A) 260 members
(B) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
(C) 305 members
(D) 300 members representing States and Union Territories
81. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by
(A) Direct elections
(B) Indirect elections
(C) the system of proportional representation.
(D) the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
82. The power of allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the constituencies is vested with
(A) Election Commission (B) Parliament (C) State Legislatures (D) President
83. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) 14 days (B) 3 months (C) 6 months (D) None of the above
84. Who among the following has a right to speak or otherwise participate in the proceedings of either House or in any Joint sitting of the Parliament without voting right ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Chief Election Commissioner
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
85. Prorogation of a House means
(A) a House has been brought in session.
(B) the session of the House has been terminated.
(C) the House itself stands terminated.
(D) None of the above
86. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister
(A) the Cabinet may choose another leader.
(B) fresh general election must take place.
(C) the ministry is dissolved.
(D) President's decision.
87. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum number of times ?
(A) National Emergency
(B) President's Rule in a State
(C) Financial Emergency
(D) All three, equal number of times
88. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of
(A) President (B) Governor (C) State Legislative Assembly (D) None of the above
89. The maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of Parliament can be
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 20
90. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, the President
(A) may return the Bill for reconsideration.
(B) shall give his assent.
(C) may give his assent.
(D) may withold his assent.
91. Every judge of the Supreme Court of India shall hold office until he attains the age of
(A) 58 years (B) 60 years (C) 62 years (D) 65 years
92. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court held that primacy should be given to the opinion of other constitutional functions in the matter of appointment of High Court and Supreme Court judges
(A) Keshvananda Bharti case
(B) Special Courts Bills case
(C) Transfer of Judges case
(D) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India
93. The doctrine of prospective overruling was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in
(A) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
94. Disputes between States comes to the Supreme Court under
(A) original jurisdiction (B) advisory jurisdiction (C) appellate jurisdiction (D) None of the above
95. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers ?
(A) Article 258 (B) Article 260 (C) Article 262 (D) Article 264
96. How many languages are present in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution ?
(A) 16 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 22
97. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States ?
(A) 520 (B) 530 (C) 540 (D) 550
98. When the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the Speaker ?
(A) The President (B) The Chief Justice of India (C) The Prime Minister (D) The Council of Ministers
99 . After what time period may a House declare the seat of any member vacant, when he absents from all meetings without permission of the House ?
(A) 30 days (B) 45 days (C) 60 days (D) There is no time period
100. Under Article 321 of the Constitution, the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) President
101. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
(A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) Jai Prakash Narayan (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
102. Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S.R. Bommai case by
(A) J.S. Verma, J. (B) S.R. Pandian, J. (C) P.B. Sawant, J. (D) A.M. Ahmadi, J.
103. India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e. 'Union of States' from which country ?
(A) Ireland (B) Canada (C) USA (D) Russia
104. Which of the following Articles describe a person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be a citizen ?
(A) Article 9 (B) Article 8 (C) Article 7 (D) Article 5
105. Against which of the following, writs cannot be issued under Article 32 for the enforcement of fundamental rights ?
(A) High Court (B) Port Trust (C) Income Tax Tribunal (D) Delhi Municipal Corporation
106. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was 'law' within the meaning of Article 13 ?
(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
107. The term "law in force" in clause (3) of Article 13 means
(A) only statutory law
(B) customs and usages only
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) newly formed public order only
108. In which of the following cases, was it held that Articles 14,19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness ?
(A) Jagan Nath v. Union of India
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration
109. In which of the following cases was the new concept of equality under Article 14, i.e., protection against arbitrariness, propagated by Justice Bhagwati ?
(A) D.K. Bakshi v. Union of India
(B) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
(C) Pradeep Jain v. Union of India
(D) Air India v. Nargeesh Mirza
110. The group of people in the State to constitute backward class to satisfy Article 15(4) is left to the decision of
(A) the Court (B) the President of India (C) the State (D) the Parliament
111. Under Article 16, the words 'any employment or office' applies to
(A) public employment (B) private employment (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above
112. On which of the following freedoms are reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State ?
(A) Speech and expression (B) Peaceful assembly (C) Association or union (D) Movement
113. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 15 (C) Article 16 (D) Article 17
114. A citizen of India, who holds any office of profit or trust under the State cannot accept any title from any foreign State without the consent of
(A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (D) Council of Ministers
115. Which one of the undermentioned right is guaranteed to citizens as freedom of religion under Article 19 ?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to contest election
(C) Right to assemble peacefully without arms
(D) Right to citizenship
116. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights ?
(A) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
(B) Kasturi Lai v. State of U.P.
(C) Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) Nilabeti Behera v. State of Orissa
117. Articles 20 - 22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to
(A) citizen only.
(B) citizens and non-citizens.
(C) natural persons as well as artificial persons.
(D) all persons who have juristic personality.
118. The following are not included in the light to personal liberty :
(A) Right to free legal aid
(B) Right not to be tortured
(C) Right to equality of wages
(D) Freedom from arrest
119. Arrange the decisions of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right to personal liberty in the correct chronological sequence :
(1) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(2) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla
(3) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 3, 2, 1 (C) 2, 3, 1 (D) 2, 1, 3
120. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 inserted the provision for the right to education which provides for the obligation of the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. The age of such children should be
(A) 0 to 12 years (B) 0 to 14 years (C) 7 to 12 years (D) 12 to 18 years
121. Which section of Preventive Detention Act, 1950, was declared ultra vires by the Supreme Court in case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras ?
(A) Section 11 (B) Section 14 (C) Section 17 (D) Section 19
122. According to Article 22(4), no detention of any person is possible without the intercession of the Advisory Board for a period exceeding
(A) two months (B) less than two months (C) three months (D) twelve months
123. Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
(A) public order (B) security of state (C) health (D) morality
124. Under Article 30(1), the right to establish and administer educational institution belongs to
(A) all citizens of India.
(B) all people of India.
(C) religious and linguistic minorities.
(D) minorities as well as majority.
125. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata except
(A) Quo warranto (B) Habeas corpus (C) Certiorari (D) Prohibition
126. The right to property was dropped from the list of Fundamental Rights by
(A) 24th Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment (C) 44th Amendment (D) None of the above
127. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. BR. Ambedkar as the "heart and soul of the Constitution" ?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right to religion
(C) Right to constitutional remedies
(D) None of the above
128. The right under Article 32 can be suspended by
(A) the Parliament
(B) the State Legislature
(C) the Supreme Court of India
(D) the President when proclamation of emergency is in operation
129. In 1971, a new Article 31C was inserted in the Constitution which provides that a law giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy specified in Article 39(b) and (c) will not be void on the ground of contravention of Articles 14,19 or 31. The insertion was made by which of the following Amendments ?
(A) 21st Amendment (B) 24th Amendment (C) 25th Amendment (D) 26th Amendment
130. Which Article of the Constitution provides that the Parliament will determine the extent of fundamental rights for the members of the Armed Forces ?
(A) Article 31D (B) Article 32A (C) Article 33 (D) None of the above
131. According to Article 35, in respect to any of the matters under Articles 16(3), 32(3), 33 and 34, who has the power to make laws ?
(A) The Parliament (B) The State Legislature (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above
132. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of Directive Principles from
(A) Constitution of Switzerland
(B) Constitution of Ireland
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Constitution of USA
133. "Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution" was opined by
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) A.V. Dicey (C) Granville Austin (D) K.L Wheare
134. Match the following:
Articles: (a) 39A (b) 40 (c) 41 (d) 44
Provisions:
(i) Uniform Civil Code
(ii) Equal justice and free legal aid
(iii) Organisation of village panchayat
(iv) Right to work
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (A) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (B) | iv | ii | iii | i |
| (C) | ii | iii | iv | i |
| (D) | iii | iv | ii | i |
135. In Article 45, the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years (C) 12 years (D) 14 years
136. In which one of the following judgements, the Supreme Court found that "morality and law cannot be equated with each other" ?
(A) P. V. Narsimha Rao v. State
(B) Common Cause v. Union of India
(C) Bennett & Coleman Ltd. v. Union of India
(D) V. V. Shivaprasad v. K. Venkateswarlu
137. How many duties are conferred on the citizens in Article 51 A ?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 12
138. Which one of the following judgements is not related to the 'doctrine of separation of powers' ?
(A) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(C) Union of India v. Sankatchand
(D) Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
139. "Article 74(1) is mandatory and therefore, the President cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers", was observed by the Supreme Court in:
(A) Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab
(B) U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
140. The President of India nominates
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) All of the above
141. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is
(A) the President of India (B) the Speaker of Lok Sabna (C) the Vice-President (D) None of the above
142. "The power of the President to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial power. It is not judiciable on its merits. Only the area and scope of President's power under Article 72 can be examined by the court." This was held by the Supreme Court in
(A) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
(B) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh
(C) Maru Ram v. Union of India
(D) All of the above
143. Power of the Governor to grant pardon, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in
(A) Article 159 (B) Article 161 (C) Article 162 (D) Article 163
144. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till the new President is elected ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Seniormost Governor
(D) Leader of the majority party
145. In the performance of his duties in exercise of his powers, the Governor
(A) is answerable to the Vidhan Sabha.
(B) is answerable in the court of law.
(C) is not answerable to the court of law.
(D) can be impeached by the Vidhan Sabha.
146. The President's Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period of
(A) six months (B) nine months (C) one year (D) two years
147. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Constituent power (B) Legislative power (C) Executive power (D) Quasi-judicial power
148. The President of India has power to
(A) summon each House of Parliament.
(B) dissolve the Houses or either House of Parliament.
(C) prorogue the Houses or either House of Parliament.
(D) dissolve the Lok Sabha only.
149. Any charge of impeachment of the President may be preferred
(A) only in the Council of States
(B) only in the House of the People
(C) only in joint session of Parliament
(D) by either House of Parliament
150. The disputes regarding the election of President and Vice-President of India are filed and settled
(A) in the Supreme Court
(B) in the Parliament
(C) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(D) in the Election Commission
151. GST will be levied on
(A) Manufacturers (B) Retailers (C) Consumers (D) All of the above
152. Interests payable on savings bank accounts in India is —— .
(A) not regulated
(B) regulated by RBI
(C) regulated by Central Government
(D) regulated by State Governments
153. Which regulatory authority has revamped panel on alternative investment ?
(A) RBI (B) IRDA (C) SEBI (D) PDRA
154. Which of the following statement is not correct about INDIRA AWAS YOJNA ?
(A) It was launched in 1985-86.
(B) Now it became the part of Bharat Nirman Programme.
(C) A minimum of 60% fund is used for the constructions of houses of SC/STs.
(D) Its financial burden is shared by the states in the ratio of 50:50.
155. Who works as RBI's agent at places where it has no office of its own ?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Government of India
(D) International Monetary Fund
156. Which constitutional amendment is done to pass the GST bill ?
(A) 101st (B) 120th (C) 122nd (D) 115th
157. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has approved which of the following agencies to acquire a majority stake in IDBI bank ?
(A) LIC (B) GIC (C) National Insurance Co. Ltd. (D) None of the above
158. A Public Debt Office works as investment banker to the —— .
(A) Public (B) Commercial Banks (C) RBI (D) Government
159. Which of the following tax is abolished by the Goods and Services Tax ?
(A) Property Tax (B) Corporation Tax (C) VAT (D) All of the above
160. Who mints the coins in India ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Prime Minister's Office
(D) Commerce and Industry Ministry
161. As per Mercer's 24th Annual Cost of Living Survey 2018, which is India's most expensive city ?
(A) Gurugram (B) Mumbai (C) Bengaluru (D) Hyderabad
162. Which of the following statement is correct about Budget ?
I. It is a statement of financial position for a future period, setting out proposed expenditure and means of financing it.
II. Article 111 of the Constitution requires the government to present to Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure in respect of every financial year.
Select correct one.:
(A) Only I (B) Only ll (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
163. Which of the following three general insurance companies will be merged into single insurance company as per Budget 2018-19 ?
(A) UTI, Oriental Insurance and National Insurance
(B) LIC, Bharti AXA and United Insurance
(C) General Insurance, Max Bupa and UTI
(D) Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited, Bharti AXA and United Insurance
164. The oldest stock market of India is
(A) Bombay Stock Exchange
(B) Ahmedabad Stock Exchange
(C) Bengalore Stock Exchange
(D) Hyderabad Stock Exchange
165. If the government chooses to spend money freshly printed by the RBI against government securities, it should be kept in which among the following ?
(A) Fiscal adjustment (B) Deficit financing (C) Mandatory spending (D) Retrenchment
166. RBI revision of Repo/Reverse Repo rate by 10 basis points implies, which among the following fractions ?
(A) 1% (B) 10% (C) 100% (D) 0.10%
167. Which of the following sector does not come under the service sector in India ?
(A) Real Estate
(B) Transport
(C) Restaurants & Hotels
(D) Formation of electronic television
168. Which of the following is likely to cause current account deficit in India ?
I. Reduced excise duties on Sports Utility Vehicles
II. Reduced duties on Gold
III. Ban of export of Onions
(A) Both I & II (B) Both II & III (C) Only I & III (D) I, II & III
169. Which among the following correctly denotes the Primary Deficit ?
(A) Revenue Expenditure-Revenue Receipts
(B) Sum of the net increase in holdings of treasury bills of the RBI and its contributions to the market borrowing of the government.
(C) Budgetary Deficit+Govt, market borrowings and liabilities
(D) Fiscal Deficit-Interest Payment
170. Which of the following is true about the restrictions on RBI ?
(i) It is not to compete with the commercial banks.
(ii) It is not allowed to pay interest on its deposits.
(iii) It cannot engage directly or indirectly in trade.
(iv) It cannot acquire or advice loans against immovable property.
(v) It is prohibited from purchasing its own shares or the shares of any other bank or any company or granting loans on such security.
(A) Only (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) Only (v) (C) All of the above (D) None of the above
171. Which of the following is called a banker's cheque ?
(A) Demand draft (B) Debit card (C) Pay order (D) Fixed deposit
172. Which of the following is not the work of RBI ?
(A) Bank of the banks
(B) Credit controller
(C) Custodian of foreign currency
(D) Allocating funds directly to the farmers for agricultural development
173. Which of the following words is not used in Monetary Policy ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (B) Repo Rate (C) Bank Rate (D) Blue Chip
174. Which of the following is not a function of RBI ?
(A) To assume responsibility of meeting directly or indirectly all reasonable demands for accommodation
(B) To hold cash reserves of commercial banks
(C) To assume responsibility of all banking operations of the government,
(D) To assume responsibility of statistical analysis of data related to macroeconomy of India
175. If cash reserve ratio is lowered by RBI, its impact on credit creation will be to
(A) increase it (B) decrease it (C) no impact (D) cannot be determined
176. National income calculated at current price in India has shown a tendency to rise at a faster rate than national income at current prices because
(A) General price level has been rising fast.
(B) India's population has been rising.
(C) Base year chosen is abnormal.
(D) None of the above
177. National Rural Development Institute is situated at
(A) Delhi (B) Shimla (C) Hyderabad (D) Mumbai
178. Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(A) Share market—stock exchange
(B) Interest rate—fiscal policy
(C) Export subsidy—fiscal policy
(D) General price index—inflation
179. Which among the following formulates fiscal policy ?
(A) RBI (B) Finance Ministry (C) SEBI (D) Planning Commission
180. Consider the following statements about GST:
i) Both Central and State taxes will be collected at the point of sale.
ii) The Central and State GST will be charged on the manufacturing cost.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
181. In context of India's five year plans, a shift in pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
(A) Fourth Plan (B) Fifth Plan (C) Eighth Plan (D) Ninth Plan
182. How many Regional Rural Banks are working in India as of January, 2018 ?
(A) 59 (B) 60 (C) 61 (D) 56
183. The RBI issues
(A) all currency notes
(B) all currency notes except one rupee notes
(C) all currency notes except 100 rupee notes
(D) only notes of Rs. 10 and above
184. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act concerns
(A) Fiscal deficit only
(B) Revenue deficit only
(C) Both fiscal and revenue deficit
(D) Neither fiscal nor revenue deficit
185. Bring out the only incorrect statement:
(A) Reverse Repo operation by RBI aims at injecting/increasing liquidity.
(B) SDR refers to special drawing rights.
(C) Rupee appreciation results in decrease in imports.
(D) Increase in inflation rate leads to decline in real interest rate.
186. Investment in which among the following is the Most Risk Free Asset of a Bank as per the RBI guidelines ?
(A) Housing Loans
(B) Government Approved Securities
(C) Venture Capital Investments
(D) Loans against Jewellery
187. Which one of the following is NOT correct ?
(A) First Five Year Plan : 1951-1956
(B) Second Five Year Plan : 1956-1961
(C) Third Five Year Plan : 1961-1966
(D) Fourth Five Year Plan : 1966-1971
188. Which among the following Industrial Policy Resolution/Statement was based upon the Mahalanobis Model of growth ?
(A) Industrial Policy Resolution-1956
(B) Industry Policy Statement-1973
(C) Industrial Policy Statement-1977
(D) None of the above
189. Which among the following was the first Government Company to be privatized in India ?
(A) Hotel Corporation of India
(B) Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Ltd.
(C) Maruti Udyog Limited
(D) Modern Foods Industries Limited
190. If the Reserve Bank of India wants to block/hinder the capital outflows and contain the currency depreciation, which among the following will be the most possible action ?
(A) Increase Interest Rates
(B) Decrease Interest Rates
(C) Purchase Government Bonds
(D) Decrease Statutory Liquidity Ratio
191. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act mandates at least what fraction of the beneficiaries to be women ?
(A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50%
192. RBI has allowed which banks to become Small Finance Banks under certain criteria ?
(A) Rural Cooperative Banks
(B) District Cooperative Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) None of the above
193. In context of India's five year plans, in which plan was the growth rate target exceeded ?
(A) First plan (B) Fifth plan (C) Sixth plan (D) None of the above
194. Development expenditure of the Central Government does not include
(A) defence expenditure
(B) expenditure on economic services
(C) expenditure on social and community services
(D) grant to states
195. A Non-Resident Indian wants to get approval under Government Route for FDI in 'Single Brand' product retailing in India. Which among the following would be the appropriate agency to approach for this application ?
(A) Regional Office of Reserve Bank of India
(B) Head Office of Reserve Bank of India
(C) Department of Economic Affairs (Ministry of Finance)
(D) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (Ministry of Commerce)
196. In India, the Foreign Exchange Reserves are kept in the custody of which among the following ?
(A) Ministry of Finance (B) EXIM bank (C) Reserve Bank of India (D) Selected Public Sector Banks
197. If the Reserve Bank of India wants to increase the cash reserves commercial banks, which among the following would be the most probable step taken by it ?
(A) Release Gold from its reserves
(B) Buy bonds in the open market
(C) Prohibit the transactions that involve bill of exchange
(D) Increase the tranche reserves with the IMF
198. The minimum interest rate of a bank below which it is not viable to lend, is known as
(A) Reserved Rate (B) Base Rate (C) Marginal Rate (D) Prime Lending Rate
199. Which of the following is used to denote broad money ?
(A) M1 (B) M2 (C) M3 (D) M4
200. Which among the following is popularly known as mercantile law of India ?
(A) Contract Law (B) Law of Torts (C) Labour Law (D) Property Law
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