WBCS Exam Main Compulsory Question Paper V - 2015 [The Constitution of India and Indian Economy including role and functions of RBI]
1. The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitution Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be
(A) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court (B) Seven
(C) Three (D) One-third of the total strength of the Court
2. The Supreme Court of India
(A) Is a Court of record and has a power to punish for its contempt
(B) Is the only highest Court of Appeal
(C) Is like House of Lords on its Judicial side
(D) Is in all respects like Supreme Court of USA
3. The Supreme Court at present consists of
(A) 26 Judges (B) 26 Judges including the Chief Justice of India
(C) Chief Justice of India and 20 other Judges (D) Chief Justice of India and 16 other Judges
4. Doctrine of pleasure was introduced in :
(A) Article 310 (B) Article 312 (C) Article 317 (D) None of the above
5. —— is the Chief Law Officer of India
(A) Advocate General (B) Attorney General (C) Solicitor General (D) Law Minister
6. Which is not correct statement regarding financial emergency ?
(A) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
(B) The States may be asked to reserve the Money Bills for the consideration of the President
(C) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
(D) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
7. India is Union of States. This means
(A) That the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement between States
(B) That the original federation of States gave way to Sovereign Republic
(C) That the Constituent Assembly has created the unitary State of India
(D) That the making of the Indian Union was preceded by the prolonged struggle for freedom from foreign rule.
8. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
(A) Prime Minister (B) Chairman of UPSC
(C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme court
9. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (C) Rajagopalachari (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
10. The Composition of UPSC
(A) Has been laid down in the Constitution (B) Is determined by Parliament
(C) Is determined by President (D) Is determined by Home Ministry
11. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it should by the endeavour of every State and every local authority to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to linguistic minority groups :
(A) Art 349 (B) Art 350 (C) Art 350-A (D) Art 351
12. The first Election Commissioner of India was :
(A) Sukumar Sen (B) Dr. Nagendra Singh (C) S.P. Sen Verma (D) K.V.K. Sundaram
13. The Constitution of India provides that "it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language". It is found in
(A) Art 49 (B) Art 149 (C) Art 351 (D) Art 355
14. English is the official language of which one of the following States ?
(A) Nagaland (B) Assam (C) Manipur (D) Tripura
15. Point out the correct statement :
1. Originally the Constitution of India had 14 languages in the 8th schedule
2. Currently there are 22 languages in the Constitution of India
(A) 1 correct (B) 2 not correct (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
16. Which of the following funds/authorities/ bodies can be audited by the CAG ?
1. Consolidated Funds of Union Government, State, U.Ts having legislative Assemblies
2. Contingency Funds of India
3. Public Accounts of States
4. Receipts and expenditure of PPP (Public Private Partnership)
(A) 1, 2, 3 only (B) 1, 2 only (C) 1, 3 only (D) All
17. How many subjects are found in the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) 52 (B) 62 (C) 42 (D) 72
18. The residuary powers of legislation are vested in Parliament in India. The residuary provisions are found in which Article ?
(A) Art 245 (B) Art 248 (C) Art 250 (D) Art 251
19. Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on items in the Union list. How many subjects are in the Union list at present ?
(A) 100 (B) 80 (C) 87 (D) 99
20. What is the criteria for a regional party to be recognised as a national party ?
(A) Must be recognised in at least 4 states
(B) Must be recognised in at least 3 states
(C) To get 1/10th seats in the Lok Sabha
(D) Must get 1/10th seats in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
21. Provisions regarding the Panchayats are incorporated in which articles ?
(A) Art 243 to Art 243 L (B) Art 243 to Art 243 M
(C) Art 243 to Art 244 (D) Art 243 to Art 243 O
22. The Panchayats are enshrined in which Part of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Part IX (B) Part IX A (C) Part X (D) Part XI A
23. Choose the incorrect statement among the following :
(A) The National Commission for S.C. is a 6 member body
(B) National Commission for S.C. is a constitutional body established with a view to provide safe-guards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes.
(C) The first commission came into being on Aug, 1978
(D) The Commission enquires into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes
24. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) consider the following statements :
1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become a Chairman of NHRC
2. The Chairman can be re-appointed
Which of the statements above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
25. The jurisdiction of the Union Public Service Commission can be extended by :
(A) Government by a resolution (B) President
(C) Parliament (D) (B) or (C) depending on the type of extension
26. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is dealt within :
(A) Part XII of Constitution of India (B) Part XIII of Constitution of India
(C) Part XIV of Constitution of India (D) Part XVI of Constitution of India
27. The Constitution of India has defined which of the following ?
Select the correct answer
1. Scheduled Caste 2. Scheduled Tribe 3. Anglo Indians
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only
28. Which of the following articles correctly matched ?
(A) Election Commission - Art 324 (B) Finance Commission - Art 200
(C) Attorney General - Art 176 (D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes -Art 320
29. Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(A) V. S. Ramadevi (B) G. D. Das (C) S. K. Bedi (D) R. M. Nikam
30. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President, to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of the backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures ?
(A) Article 340 (B) Article 342 (C) Article 344 (D) Article 339
31. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is
(A) Fundamental right of every citizen (B) Fundamental duty of every citizen
(C) Directive principles of State Policy (D) Ordinary duty of every citizen
32. Directive Principles are
(A) Justifiable as fundamental rights
(B) Justifiable but not as fundamental rights
(C) Decorative portions of Indian Constitution
(D) Not justifiable, yet fundamental in governance of the country
33. Directive Principles of the State Policy are
(A) Not part of Indian Constitution
(B) Policy declarations made by Jawaharlal Nehru.
(C) Policy principles enunciated by the Planning Commission
(D) A part of Indian Constitution
34. Directive Principles of State Policy are
(A) Unique feature of the Constitution (B) Actual feature of the Constitution
(C) Not a novel feature of the Constitution (D) Useless feature of the Constitution
35. Though all government servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor (as the case may be), two procedural safe-guards are provided for the security of tenure of 'civil servants' as distinguished from military personnel by the Constitution of India -
1. A civil servant shall not be dismissed or removed by any authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed
2. No dismissal, removal or reduction in rank shall be ordered against a civil servant unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges brought against him
(A) 1 correct (B) 2 correct (C) Both (1) and (2) correct (D) (1) correct, (2) incorrect
36. The Supreme Court retains its jurisdiction over the Administrative Tribunals under :
(A) Art 356 (B) Art 132 (C) Art 134 (D) Art 136
37. To reduce the mounting arrears in High Courts and to secure the speedy disposal of service matters, revenue matters and certain other matters of special importance in the context of the socio-economic development and progress which amendment to the Constitution of India provides for administrative and other tribunals for dealing with the above matter ?
(A) 41st Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment (C) 43rd Amendment (D) 44th Amendment
38. Name the writ issued by a superior court to a lower court or a tribunal forbidding it to perform and act outside its jurisdiction
(A) Certiorari (B) Prohibition (C) Mandamus (D) Quo Warranto
39. Point out what is not the primary function of the Finance Commission in India
(A) Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India
(B) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States
(C) Determine factors governing grants-in-Aid to the States
(D) Recommend to the President the measures needed to augment the consolidated Fund of a State
40. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions ?
(A) Assam (B) Nagaland (C) Kerala (D) Tripura
41. Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admissions in private un-aided educational institutions for students belong to Scheduled Caste/Tribes and other Backward Classes ?
(A) 92nd Amendment Act (B) 93rd Amendment Act
(C) 94th Amendment Act (D) 95th Amendment Act
42. Article 368 very clearly lays down situations in which State Legislatures have to ratify a piece of Legislation before the Bill can receive the assent of the President. Choose the provision/provisions from the following that requires ratification by 1/2 of State Legislature
(A) Women's reservation
(B) Amendment of provisions regarding Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(C) Fundamental Rights (D) Supreme court and High Court
43. High Courts are instituted as Constitutional Courts by
(A) Part IX Chapter 2 (B) Part VII Chapter 6 (C) Part V Chapter 3 (D) Part VI Chapter 5
44. Currently how many High Courts are there in India ?
(A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 29
45. Who is appointed as the Chief Justice of India ?
(A) The President appoints the Chief Justice of India upon the advice of the Union Cabinet
(B) The senior most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice of India
(C) The panel of judges of Supreme Court elect a Chief Justice from among themselves
(D) The Chief Justice of India is elected by the Lok Sabha
46. To be eligible to be a judge of the Supreme Court which among the following is not a criteria for eligibility ?
(A) Judge of one High Court or more continuously for at least 5 years
(B) An advocate of High Court for at least 10 years
(C) Above 40 years of age
(D) A distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President
47. Choose the correct statement/statements :
1. Right to vote is not a Fundamental Right but a Constitutional one
2. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the right to vote
(A) 1 Only (B) 2 only (C) Both (D) None
48. The emoluments, allowances, privileges of a Governor can be altered by :
(A) A constitutional amendment passed by a simple majority in Parliament
(B) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament
(C) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament and ratified by one half of the State Legislatures
(D) By an ordinary legislative process that does not require constitutional Amendment
49. Which of the following subjects is included in the Union list ?
(A) Agriculture (B) Extradition (C) Public health, Sanitation, Hospitals (D) Libraries, Museums
50. Consolidated Fund of India is provided in
(A) Art 234 (B) Art 265 (C) Art 239 (D) Art 266
51. The provisions regarding the Union and the State relations are contained in which part of the Constitution of India ?
(A) IX (B) X (C) XII (D) XI
52. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States ?
(A) First Schedule (B) Second Schedule (C) Sixth Schedule (D) Seventh Schedule
53. Which article of the Constitution of India provides personal immunity to the head of the State for his official act from legal action including proceedings for contempt of Court ?
(A) Article 361 (B) Article 362 (C) Article 368 (D) Article 369
54. Which schedule deals with the Anti Defection Act ?
(A) Fifth (B) Eighth (C) Seventh (D) Tenth
55. With reference to defections consider the following statements
1. An independent member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat.
2. A nominated member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party any time
Which statement is/are true ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
56. The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the
(A) 61st Amendment Act (B) 63 rd Amendment Act
(C) 64th Amendment Act (D) 69th Amendment Act
57. Defection to another party after election was made illegal by the :
(A) 52nd Amendment Act (B) 53rd Amendment Act
(C) 54th amendment Act (D) 55th Amendment Act
58. Choose the amendment to the Constitution of India that increased the elective strength of the Lok Sabha from 525 to 545
(A) 31st Amendment Act (B) 30th Amendment Act
(C) 25th Amendment Act (D) 21st Amendment Act
59. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister in India is
(A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 35 years (D) 40 years
60. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority ?
(A) Ordinary Bill (B) Money Bill (C) Finance Bill (D) Constitution Amendment Bill
61. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution ?
(A) Right to Equality (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Religion (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
62. Which new provision was added to the Indian Constitution which provided that "no person shall be deprived of his property saved by authority of law" ?
(A) Art 300 A (B) Art 300 B (C) Art 301 A (D) Art 301 B
63. Name the Chairman of the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (B) J. B. Kripalani (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Gopinath Bardoloi
64. Which of the following Union Territories attained statehood in February 1987 ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Daman and Diu (C) Goa (D) Pondicherry
65. The 53rd Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 1986 inserted a new Article conferring full statehood on :
(A) Mizoram (B) Tripura (C) Meghalaya (D) Nagaland
66. What is the special constitutional position of Jammu and Kashmir ?
(A) Indian laws are not applicable
(B) It is not part of the Indian Union
(C) It has its own constitution
(D) It is a protected territory
67. The preamble to the Indian Constitution was amended in which year ?
(A) 1974 (B) 1975 (C) 1976 (D) 1977
68. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was formed by the Constituent Assembly on :
(A) 29th August, 1947 (B) 30th August, 1948 (C) 29th August, 1946 (D) 30th August, 1949
69. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set-up under the recommendation of :
(A) Cabinet Mission Plan (B) Wavell Plan (C) Mountbatten Plan (D) Crips Mission
70. In the National Flag which colour is used in the wheel ?
(A) Black (B) White (C) Navy Blue (D) Blue
71. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is
(A) 16 (B) 18 (C) 14 (D) 12
72. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President of India
(B) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are not elected by State Legislative Assemblies
(C) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Vice-President
(D) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting
73. The Vice-President of India may be removed from his/her office by the :
(A) Legislative Assemblies of State (B) President (C) Prime Minister (D) Parliament
74. Which of the following Articles states that the Vice-President is an ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States ?
(A) Art 60 (B) Art 61 (C) Art 62 (D) Art 64
75. Which Amendment to the Indian Constitution added that the President can sent the advice of the Council of Ministers back for reconsideration once and if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the president must accept it ?
(A) 44th Amendment (B) 43rd Amendment (C) 42nd Amendment (D) 41st Amendment
76. The manner of the election of the President in India is found in :
(A) Art 64 (B) Art 55 (C) Art 56 (D) Art 57
77. Which Article of the Indian Constitution contains the power of the president to grant pardons ?
(A) Article 72 (B) Article 73 (C) Article 74 (D) Article 75
78. Which one of the following Articles empowers the president to appoint the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Article 74 (B) Article 75 (C) Article 76 (D) Article 77
79. Fill in the Blank :- The Union Territories are specified in the ——
(A) 2nd Schedule (B) 1st Schedule (C) 3rd Schedule (D) 4th Schedule
80. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold in a majority judgement that the Fundamental Rights could not by their very nature be subject to amendment by Parliament ?
(A) Minerva Mills Case 1980 (B) Golaknath Case 1967
(C) Keshavananda Bharati Case 1973 (D) Champakam Dorairajan Case 1951
81. Under which constitutional Article newspapers do not have the right to publish reports of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of parliament or Legislative Assembly and Legislative Councils in India ?
(A) Art 361 (B) Art 361 A (C) Art 361 B (D) Art 361 C
82. The Eighty-sixth Amendment of the Constitution of India altered a Directive Principle of the Constitution to provide for :
(A) Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
(B) The state to provide free legal aid
(C) Encouraging village panchayats
(D) Prohibiting intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health
83. Which Article of the Indian Constitution enumerates Fundamental Duties of an Indian Citizen ?
(A) Art 50 A (B) Art 50 B (C) Art 51 A (D) Art 51 B
84. Within what time should information be provided under RTI in case of life and personal liberty of a person ?
(A) 24Hrs. (B) One Week (C) 48Hrs. (D) 30 Days
85. Right to Information Act came into force in
(A) 12th Oct, 2005 (B) 12th Oct, 2006 (C) 12th Oct, 2007 (D) 12th Oct, 2008
86. Which among the following articles relating to Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during the emergency under Art 359 of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Art 14 and Art 15 (B) Art 16 and Art 17 (C) Art 20 and Art 21 (D) Art 24 and Art 25
87. Choose the Article in the Constitution of India that envisages free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years.
(A) Art 19 (B) Art 31 (C) Art 44 (D) Art 21 A
88. The Constitution of India guarantees that all citizens will be equal before law by which Article ?
(A) Art 11 (B) Art 12 (C) Art 13 (D) Art 14
89. Choose the following writs that can be issued against administrative authorities :
(A) Prohibition, Certiorari, Mandamus (B) Prohibition and Mandamus
(C) Prohibition and Certiorari (D) Certiorari and Mandamus
90. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom ?
(A) Certiorari (B) Habeas Corpus (C) Mandamus (D) Quo Warranto
91. The minimum age for holding office in the Rajya Sabha is
(A) 18 years (B) 21 years (C) 25 years (D) 30 years
92. What is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution of India ?
(A) 552 (B) 540 (C) 555 (D) 550
93. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
(A) The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers
(B) Resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers
(C) The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Ministers
(D) The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of Ministers
94. What is the maximum permissible size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre ?
(A) Maximum 50 (B) No upper limit
(C) Cannot exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha
(D) Cannot exceed 10% of the total members of Lok Sabha
95. The maximum number of Anglo Indian who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 4
96. Which of the statements below is/are correct ?
1. The Parliament of India consists of three parts, viz the President, the House of People and the Council of States
2. The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament
3. The Parliament is the Legislative organ of Union Government
(A) 1 only (B) 1 & 2 only (C) 1 & 3 only (D) All of the above
97. Choose the Article of the Indian Constitution that provides for the Joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(A) Article 101 (B) Article 108 (C) Article 133 (D) Article 102
98. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker who presides over the deliberations of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Oldest member of the House (B) Prime Minister
(C) Leader of the opposition
(D) One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the speaker
99. In the case of disagreement on a Bill between the two Houses of Parliament
(A) The Prime Minister intervenes (B) The President intervenes
(C) A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the impasse
(D) A joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament is convened
100. After the declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation of the emergency without approval by the Parliament ?
(A) One month (B) Two months (C) Three months (D) Four months
101. In the Index of Eight core Industries, which one of the following is given the lowest weight
(A) Electricity generation (B) Fertiliser production (C) Coal (D) Cement
102. Which of the statements is not correct
(A) National Food Security Mission was launched in 2007-2008
(B) It (NFSM) aimed at increase in production of rice, wheat and pulses
(C) The basic strategy is to promote and extend improved technologies
(D) It did not lay emphasis on soil management
103. Which of the following is not true about Indian economy
(A) The contribution of the primary sector in the GDP is increasing regularly
(B) The share of its tertiary sector increased
(C) The share of the secondary sector never crossed 40%
(D) It is an agrarian economy directly shifting towards service economy
104. "High Street Banking" lays emphasis on
(A) Retail lending (B) Corporate lending (C) Long-term risk free lending (D) Short-term lending
105. Which of the following is not correct about White Label ATMs
(A) These are owned and operated by a third party non-banking firm
(B) They serve customers of all banks
(C) These entities have a mandate to deploy 80% of ATMs in rural locations
(D) The main objective is financial inclusion
106. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) Credit rating is done to assess the credit worthiness of the prospective borrower
(B) It is done in case of individuals and even countries
(C) Equity share is rated in the rating
(D) Ratings are an investor service
107. RBI is required to maintain a minimum reserve equivalent of Rs. —— core in gold and foreign currency with itseif
(A) 1000 crore (B) 200 crore (C) 500 crore (D) 2000 crore
108. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) Repo rate is an abbreviated form of "the rate of repurchase"
(B) Repo rate is also known as "rate of discount"
(C) The Repo rate was introduced in December, 1992
(D) Only A & C are correct
109. The Reverse Repo Rate is currently fixed at
(A) 5.25% (B) 5.75% (C) 4.25% (D) None of the above
110. Which of the following is not true :
(A) Marginal standing facility (MSF) came into effect from May, 2011
(B) Under the scheme banks can borrow overnight upto 1% of their net demand and time liabilities.
(C) The minimum amount which can be accessed through MSF is Rs. 1 crore
(D) Banks can borrow through MSF on all working days
111. Industrial growth rate accelerated in 1980s due to growth of
(A) Electronic and consumer goods (B) Basic and heavy capital goods
(C) Infrastructural industries (D) Small scale industries
112. Under PL 480 scheme India entered into this programme
(A) Import of oil product (B) Import of food grains (C) Export of tea (D) None of the above
113. In case of use of mineral resources of a State by Union Government, the State can
(A) Increase royalty according to its own will
(B) Cannot increase royalty without permission of the Centre
(C) Sometimes it can change rate
(D) Uncertain
114. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) came during
(A) Fourth plan (B) Fifth plan (C) Sixth plan (D) Eighth plan
115. The strategy of direct attack on poverty was taken in this plan
(A) Plan four (B) Plan five (C) Plan eight (D) Plan nine
116. Attitude of Industrial Policy 1991 toward foreign direct investment was one of
(A) Total rejection (B) Increase in the share of FDI
(C) Decrease in the share of FDI (D) None of the above
117. World Trade Organisation (WTO) advised less developed countries to
(A) Impose export subsidy (B) Practice exchange control measures
(C) Practice market opening and free trade in goods and services
(D) None of the above
118. India suffered serious foreign exchange crisis in this year
(A) 1989 (B) 1990 (C) 1991 (D) 1995
119. Financial sector reform implied
(A) More loan to priority sector (B) More fiscal monetary link
(C) Decrease in SLR (D) None of the above
120. Disinvestment of PSE-s was required because of this
(A) Decrease in competitiveness (B) Increasing subsidy
(C) Increase in capacity unutilisation (D) All of the above
121. Consider the following :
1. Growing public sector was emphasized in first eighth plans
2. Planning in India derives its objectives and social premises from the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. The Planning Commission was set-up in March, 1952 by a Resolution of the Government of India
(A) 1 & 3 are true (B) 2 & 3 are true (C) 1 & 2 are true (D) All are true
122. Consider the following statement
1. Niti Aayog is a policy think tank
2. It aims at greater participation in the economic policy by the State Governments
3. First meeting of the Aayog was held on 18th February, 2015
(A) 1 & 2 are true (B) 1, 2 & 3 are true (C) 2 & 3 are true (D) 1 is true
123. Consider the following statement
1. The Ninth Plan was launched in the fiftieth year of India's independence
2. It lay emphasis on five basic minimum needs
3. It achieved a growth rate of 5.5 per cent per annum in GDP
(A) 1 & 3 are true (B) 1 & 2 are true (C) 2 & 3 are true (D) All of the above are true
124. The Eighth Plan could not take off in 1990 due to
(A) Extreme financial crisis (B) Fast changing political situation
(C) The concept of Annual Plan was brought in (D) Planning Commission advised so
125. The National Urban Transport Policy has the following focus-
(A) Move fast (B) Move people not vehicle
(C) Reduction in public transport (D) Discouraging non-motorised modes of travel
126. India's external debt at the end of March, 2014 stood at
(A) US$ 440.6 billions (B) US$ 550.7 billions (C) US$ 540.6 billions (D) None of the above
127. Indian Foreign Exchange Reserves comprise of
(A) Gold & SDR (B) Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF
(C) Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs) (D) All of the above
128. Consider the following statement :
1. Tea and spices are the brand ambassadors of India
2. India has been elected as the chair of International Coffee Organisation Council
3. The trade and export of the commodities has not grown steadily
(A) 1 & 3 are true (B) 1 & 2 are true (C) 2 & 3 are true (D) All of the above
129. The National Income of India during 2013-14 at current prices is estimated at
(A) Rs. 92.4 lakh crore (B) Rs. 91.5 lakh crore (C) Rs. 98.6 lakh crore (D) None of the above
130. Advantages of foreign capital are found in this way (Find correct statement)
(A) It is often speculative and creates uncertainty in capital market
(B) It may bring unsuitable technology
(C) It bridges the gap between domestic investment and savings
(D) It results in economic drain
131. The current rate of CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) is —— %
(A) 3.5 (B) 4 (C) 4.5 (D) 5
132. Which of the following is not true
(A) Bank rate is the interest rate which RBI charges on its long term lendings
(B) The rate was realigned with the MSF (Marginal Standing Facility) by the RBI in February 2012
(C) The Banks, financial institutions etc. borrow through this route excepting Government of India
(D) The rate has direct impact on long term lending activities
133. Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India—
(A) Bank of Issue (B) Banker's Bank and lender of the last resort
(C) Agent of Government of India in World Bank
(D) Announces the credit and monetary policy for the economy
134. Financial inclusion as per RBI means
(A) Greater consumer protection for newly included customers
(B) An easily accessed and speedy grievance redressal process
(C) Expanded efforts on financial literacy.
(D) All of the above
135. The allocation for General budget as a percentage of total budget has gone up from 2.79% in 2005-06 to —— in 2015-16
(A) 5.46 (B) 4.46 (C) 5.83 (D) 5.91
136. Consider the following statements :
1. India's Jute contributes about 70% of world production
2. Minimum support price for raw jute is fixed every six months by Government of India
3. Raw jute is produced mainly in the State of West Bengal, Bihar, Assam and Tripura
4. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the Minimum Support Price for 2014-15 season at Rs. 2,400 per quintal
(A) 1, 2 & 3 are true (B) 1, 3 & 4 are true (C) 1 & 2 are true (D) All are true
137. Consider the following :
1. Indian Textiles Industry contributes about 4% to the GDP
2. The textile sector is the second largest provider of employment
3. It contributes 15% to the country's export earnings
(A) Only 1 is true (B) 2 & 3 are true (C) 1 & 2 are true (D) All are true
138. The second meeting of the Governing Council of NITI Aayog emphasized on :
(A) Eradication of poverty (B) State units should be the focus of all development efforts
(C) Clearance of all pending projects (D) (A) & (B)
139. The basic thrust of two Annual Plans, 1990-91 and 1991-92 are
(A) Maximisation of employment (B) Ensuring social transformations
(C) Securing self sustaining growth (D) (A) & (B) both
140. Consider the following statements :
1. The tenth Five Year Plan (2002-07) was approved by NDC in December, 2002
2. The plan aimed at creating 50 million job opportunities
3. It recognizes that Governance is one of the most important factors for realizing the objectives of the plan
(A) 1 & 2 are true (B) 2 & 3 are true (C) 1 & 3 are false (D) All are true
141. Find the incorrect statement.
Structural adjustment implies this
(A) Increasing import restriction (B) Import liberalization
(C) Opening domestic market to free trade (D) Bringing flexible exchange rate
142. Inflation can be controlled by this method
(A) Reducing SLR (B) Reducing CRR (C) Increasing bank rate (D) None of the above
143. New money supply is created when
(A) Loan from RBI increases (B) Loan from commercial banks increases
(C) Loan from public increases (D) None of the above
144. Which one of the following comes under tertiary sector
(A) Cottage industries (B) Mining (C) Agriculture (D) Banking and insurance
145. If withdrawal of workers from employment does not create output loss, this is
(A) Search unemployment (B) Voluntary unemployment
(C) Disguised unemployment (D) Frictional unemployment
146. Development of basic capital goods industries took place during -
(A) First plan (B) Second plan (C) Sixth plan (D) Eighth plan
147. Most of the public sector units performed with
(A) High profit (B) Subsidy (C) No profit no loss (D) None of the above
148. Corporation tax is
(A) An important state level tax (B) Collected by local self-government
(C) A Central tax (D) None of the above
149. First two decades of planning witnessed foreign exchange position to be
(A) Very satisfactory (B) Unsatisfactory (C) Moderate (D) None applies
150. Early phase of Indian planning experience observed this.
(A) Import substitution (B) Free trade regime (C) Import liberalization (D) Both (B) and (C)
151. Which one of the following does not come under liberalization programme ?
(A) Removal of Industrial licensing (B) Reservation of small scale industries items
(C) Reduction in MRTP restrictions (D) Increasing limit of foreign direct investment
152. Zamindary abolition in West Bengal came in this year
(A) 1951 (B) 1953 (C) 1960 (D) 1961
153. Code the incorrect one.
Sources of long term finance of private industrial sector are
(A) Shares (B) Debentures (C) Loan from development banks (D) Loan from RRBs
154. Which of the following items does not come under Indian imports
(A) Petroleum (B) Chemicals (C) Fertilizer (D) Gems & Jewellery
155. Devaluation of Indian currency in 1991 was required to bring
(A) Increase in Imports (B) Decrease in Exports
(C) Increase in Exports (D) Both Exports and Imports to fall
156. The first Industrial policy in India was introduced in the year
(A) 1947 (B) 1948 (C) 1950 (D) 1951
157. The decade 1965-1975 witnessed, in India
(A) Very high growth of Industries (B) High growth of Industries (C) Stagnation (D) None applies
158. Point out the incorrect statement. Deficit financing
(A) Raises production when resource supply is elastic
(B) Is always inflationary
(C) Helps to employ unutilised resources
(D) Starts multiplier chain of working
159. Freight equalisation policy affected industrial development in West Bengal in the following way
(A) Beneficially (B) Adversely (C) Neutrally (D) None applies
160. Deficit financing in the following way is inflationary, when supply is inelastic -
(A) Loan from the capital market (B) Government loan from RBI
(C) Loan from commercial banks (D) Loan from foreign banks
161. Commercial banks are -
(A) The only source of long term finance for industries
(B) One of the sources of long term finance
(C) Usually do not get involved in term lending
(D) None of the above
162. CRR instrument applies on -
(A) Scheduled commercial banks (B) (A) and the investment companies
(C) CRR applies on non-banking financial institutions (D) None of the above
163. CRR as an instrument of credit control is usually
(A) Highly effective (B) Not at all effective (C) Partly effective (D) Uncertain
164. Treasury bills are instruments of getting credit for such period
(A) Long term (B) Very long term (C) Medium term (D) Short term
165. Cash reserve ratio (CRR) and statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) were most used in pre-reform period
The statement is :
(A) True (B) False (C) Partly true (D) None of the above
166. Open Market Operations (OMO) is
(A) A direct way to control credit (B) An indirect way to control credit
(C) A technique to assist foreign exchange dealers in doing their business
(D) Both (A) and (C)
167. By repo rate, Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(A) Injects liquidity into system (B) Absorb liquidity from the system
(C) Helps industries in getting fund (D) Both (A) and (C)
168. Monetisation of loans through issue of Treasury Bills brings
(A) Increase in money supply (B) Decrease in money supply
(C) Increase in foreign exchange reserve (D) Both (A) and (C)
169. The process of bill discounting is
(A) Long term loan taken-by commercial banks (B) Trade credit
(C) Government loan from capital market (D) Both (A) and (C)
170. The period prior to economic reform in India observed
(A) Free rate of Interest regime (B) Administered rate of interest regime
(C) High profitability of commercial banks (D) Both (A) and (C)
171. Code the incorrect statement. Green revolution make possible
(A) Multiple cropping (B) Use of High yielding variety (HYV) seeds
(C) Very low use of chemical fertilizer (D) Increasing use of agro machinery
172. Find out the incorrect statement :
In Co-operative farms -
(A) Farmers join voluntarily (B) Farmers face no compulsion
(C) Private ownership of land does not remain
(D) They pool their land to form a large holding
173. Point out the correct statement.
(A) Political will to make land reforms successful in India was strong
(B) Co-operative farming in India has not been successful
(C) Administrative efficiency in imposing land ceiling was high
(D) Land Reforms in India have become successful
174. Contribution of agricultural sector to Indian grow domestic product is
(A) More than its percentage share in total employment
(B) Less than its percentage share in total employment
(C) Both shares are fairly equal
(D) None applies
175. Industrial Reforms Policy took this approach to monopolies
(A) Remove MRTP restrictions (B) Tighten such restrictions
(C) Neutral attitude (D) Partly regulate the monopolies
176. Number of public sector enterprise (PSE) under New Economic Policy
(A) Increased (B) Decreased (C) Remained same (D) First increased then decreased
177. Inflation can be controlled by
(A) surplus budget (B) increase in taxation
(C) reduction in public expenditure (D) All of the above
178. Union excise duty is imposed on
(A) Sale of product (B) Personal and corporate income
(C) Ex-factory production (D) None of the above
179. Indian employment is generated mostly in this sector
(A) Registered Sector (B) Government Sector
(C) Un-registered and Un-organised sector (D) Both (A) and (B)
180. National Development Council was set up in
(A) 1948 (B) 1949 (C) 1952 (D) 1954
181. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) RBI has direct control on non-banking financial intermediaries
(B) RBI does not control Export-Import Bank
(C) RBI does not have any role in controlling foreign exchange crisis
(D) RBI can control foreign exchange reserve
182. Bank nationalization did not have this impact
(A) Total deposits of Banks increased much (B) Priority sector got more loan than before
(C) Branch expansion took place (D) Security and safety of depositors declined
183. Long Term capital for industrial sector mainly comes from
(A) RBI (B) NABARD (C) Lead bank (D) Capital Market
184. Role of RBI in the plan period followed this line
(A) Expansion of developmental loan (B) Control of Inflation
(C) Control of Credit (D) All of the above
185. Indian currency is
(A) Totally convertible in capital account (B) Partly convertible in capital account
(C) Not convertible in capital account (D) None of the above
186. NABARD provides help by
(A) Giving agricultural refinance facilities (B) Discounting Bills
(C) Giving term loan to banks (D) Giving direct loan to industries
187. Rural credit in India comes mainly from
(A) Regional Rural banks (B) Commercial banks (C) Co-operative banks (D) Money lenders
188. Bank nationalisation observed, disbursement of large part of priority sector loan to
(A) Small farmers (B) Big farmers
(C) Small scale industries (D) Household and cottage industries
189. RBI uses reverse repos to absorb liquidity
The Statement is -
(A) True (B) False (C) Partly True (D) Does not apply
190. A closed economy is in which
(A) money supply is fully controlled (B) deficit financing takes place
(C) only export is there (D) neither export nor import takes place
191. Find out the incorrect statement
Chelliah Committee recommended regarding tax reforms -
(A) To simplify rules of tax (B) To reduce rate of income tax
(C) To raise the rate of customs duties (D) Both (A) and (B)
192. Major burden of excise tax falls on
(A) Very wealthy persons (B) Rich persons
(C) Low middle class and poor persons (D) None of the above
193. Which one of the following items takes importance in government earnings in India ?
(A) Deficit budget (B) Loan (C) Direct Tax (D) Indirect Tax
194. Find out the incorrect statement
Cause of inflation is
(A) Parallel economy (B) Low fiscal deficit
(C) High growth of money supply (D) High rate of public expenditure
195. Responsibility of agricultural credit and refinance lies on the following institution
(A) RBI (B) NABARD (C) State Bank of India (D) None of the above
196. Which of the following items is of economically unproductive nature ?
(A) Defence (B) Interest charges (C) Subsidy (D) Administrative expenditure
197. Economic reforms policy gives utmost emphasis on
(A) Import restriction (B) Export promotion and import liberalisation
(C) Import substitution (D) None applies
198. Sale Tax
(A) Is progressive (B) Is regressive (C) Brings distributive justice (D) Is non inflationary
199. Maximum revenue in India comes from
(A) Corporation tax (B) Income tax (C) Customs duty (D) Excise duty
200. Trickle down process in India has become
(A) Successful highly in generating all round growth (B) Not at all successful
(C) Partly successful (D) Uncertain
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