WBCS Main Examination Paper - V (The Constitution of India and Indian Economy including role and functions of RBI) - 2020 - held on 29/08/2021 [Test Booklet Series - B]
1. Choose the correct Amendment to the Indian Constitution which has delinked the Right to Property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
(A) 43rd Amendment (B) 44th Amendment (C) 45th Amendment (D) 46th Amendment
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Art. 36 to Art. 51) is included in which part of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Part III (B) Part IV (C) Part V (D) Part VI
3. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is a fundamental right and is included in which Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right against Exploitation
(B) Right to Freedom of Religion
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Equality
4. Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides for protection against arbitrary arrest and detention ?
(A) Article 22 (B) Article 23 (C) Article 24 (D) Article 25
5. Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union according to which Article in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Article 342 (B) Article 383 (C) Article 343 (D) Article 344
6. Who is a Pro-tem Speaker in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) The first meeting after general election in which the Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha, is held under the senior most member of Parliament is commonly known as Pro-tem Speaker.
(B) A temporary Speaker elected by the House when the Speaker has taken a leave of absence.
(C) The Speaker elected by the House when both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are absent.
(D) The Speaker who presides over a joint session of Parliament.
7. Fill in the blank :
The office of the President of India can fall vacant ———.
(A) in case of death of a President
(B) if a President resigns from his post
(C) on the commencement of impeachment in the Lok Sabha
(D) Only (A) and (B)
8. Who is the highest law officer in the States of India under Article 165 ?
(A) Secretary General of the State
(B) Advocate General
(C) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(D) The Governor of the State
9. What are the qualifications for election as President of India ? Choose the correct answer:
(A) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —
(a) He is a citizen of India,
(b) He has completed the age of thirty five,
(c) He is a member of the Rajya Sabha.
(B) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —
(a) He is a citizen of India.
(b) He has completed the age of thirty years.
(c) He is a member of the Lok Sabha.
(C) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —-
(a) He is a citizen of India.
(b) He has completed the age of forty years.
(c) Unless he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or under the Government of the states.
(D) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —
(a) He is a citizen of India.
(b) He has completed thirty five years of age.
(c) He is qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
10. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Preamble of the Constitution of which country ?
(A) U.S. Constitution (B) Swiss Constitution (C) British Constitution (D) Constitution of Canada
11. The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages, thereby raising the total number of languages listed in the schedule to
(A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 22 (D) 23
12. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) 20 (B) 18 (C) 15 (D) 12
13. Which Article of the Constitution of India envisages that there shall be an Attorney General of India ?
(A) Article 78 (B) Article 76 (C) Article 67 (D) Article 113
14. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to deal with any dispute between the Centre and the State, the Centre and a State on the one side and another State on the other or between two or more States ..........?
(A) Article 131 (B) Article 132 (C) Article 133 (D) Article 134
15. Which Article in the Indian Constitution contains provisions dealing with a Money Bill ?
(A) Article 100 (B) Article 110 (C) Article 122 (D) Article 125
16. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 has introduced
(A) a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States, having population of over 20 lakh.
(B) a federal form of Government.
(C) the term 'Socialist' in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
(D) reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian Community in the Parliament.
17. Which Article in the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court of India to issue writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warranto and certiorari which ever may be appropriate for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Article 32 (B) Article 226 (C) Article 227 (D) Article 33
18. Under the Indian Constitution it is necessary to be a member of a house after 6 months of becoming a minister. In what way should a minister become a member of the house ?
(A) By nomination (B) By election (C) Either by election or nomination (D) None of the above
19. Who is the highest law officer of India under Article 76 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) The Solicitor General of India
(B) The Secretary General of the Dept. of Law in Centre
(C) The Attorney General of India
(D) The Vice-President of India
20. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission ?
(A) The Governor of a State
(B) The Chief Justice of the High Court of the State
(C) The President of India
(D) The Chief Minister of the State
21. Choose the case in which the Supreme Court by a majority ruled that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution of India, but it could not alter or destroy 'The basic structure' of the Constitution.
(A) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
(B) Golaknath Case, 1967
(C) Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973
(D) A. K. Gopalan Case, 1950
22, Fill in the blank :
The Supreme Court of India tenders legal advice to the President of India when ______ .
(A) the Cabinet recommends it
(B) the Council of Ministers recommends it
(C) the President asks for it
(D) the Supreme Court wants to tender the advice
23. To ensure free and fair elections the Constitution of India establishes an Election Commission. The members of the Election Commission in the Centre are appointed by whom ?
(A) President of India (B) Prime Minister of India (C) Chief Justice of India (D) Vice-President of India
24. Choose the correct alternative :
The President of India is elected by the electoral college. The electoral college consists of —
(A) (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and
(b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
(B) (a) all the members of both the Houses of Parliament, and
(b) all the members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
(C) (a) the elected members of the Lok Sabha,
(b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies.
(D) (a) the members of the Rajya Sabha,
(b) the members of the Legislative Assemblies.
25. Which is the oldest High Court established in India in 1862 ?
(A) The Bombay High Court
(B) The Calcutta High Court
(C) The Madras High Court
(D) The Allahabad High Court
26. How many rights are guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 4
27. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Yojana or in other words, 'Save the Girl Child' has been launched to generate awareness and improve the efficiency of welfare services intended for girls in India.
The prime concerns of BBBP are
(A) prevention of gender based sex selective elimination.
(B) ensuring survival and protection of the girl child.
(C) ensuring education and participation of the girl child.
(D) All the above concerns.
28. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term consisting of how many years ?
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 6 years
29. How is the Chief Minister of a State appointed in India ?
(A) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor.
(B) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Speaker.
(C) The Chief Minister is appointed by the Chief Justice of the State.
(D) The Chief Minister is appointed by the majority political party in the Legislative Assembly of the State.
30. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution has been amended and the terms 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' have been added by which Amendment Act ? Choose the correct option.
(A) 42nd Amendment Act (B) 43rd Amendment Act (C) 45th Amendment Act (D) 46th Amendment Act
31. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyar
(D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
32. "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under which Article of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Article 17 (B) Article 18 (C) Article 20 (D) Article 21
33. Who chooses the representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Chief Minister of the State
(B) Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly
(C) Governor
(D) President
34. Which of the following Articles contain the right to religious freedom enshrined in the Constitution of India ?
(A) Art 32 - 35 (B) Art 29 - 30 (C) Art 25 - 28 (D) Art 23 - 24
35. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian Citizen ?
(A) Safeguarding public property.
(B) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
(C) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
(D) All the above
36. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) 41st Amendment Act. (B) 42nd Amendment Act. (C) 3rd Amendment Act. (D) 44th Amendment Act.
37. If the post of both the President and the Vice President of India falls vacant who discharges the functions of the President till the new incumbent is elected ?
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
(D) The Attorney General of India
38. In which year did Goa become the 25th State of India ?
(A) 1987 (B) 1988 (C) 1989 (D) 1990
39. Which part of the Constitution of India describes citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution ?
(A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV
40. During the Proclamation of Emergency the term of Lok Sabha may be extended at a time for a period not exceeding
(A) 2 years (B) 1 year (C) 1.5 years (D) depends on the discretion of the President of India.
41. How many seats are reserved for women at all levels in the Panchayati Raj System in India ?
(A) 1/2 of seats of Panchayati Raj institutions.
(B) 1/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj and 1/3rd offices of Chairperson at all levels of Panchayati Raj institutions.
(C) 1/4 of offices of Chairperson of Panchayati Raj institutions.
(D) 2/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj institutions.
42. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or Council of States ?
(A) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(B) The leader of the majority party in the Rajya Sabha.
(C) The leader of the opposition party in the Rajya Sabha.
(D) The person elected from among the elected members of the Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of members present and voting.
43. As per the Constitution of India how many members are elected in the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories ?
(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 30 (D) 35
44. Choose the correct answer:
(A) The Constituent Assembly of India took about one year to complete its work.
(B) The Constituent Assembly of India took about two years to complete its work.
(C) The Constituent Assembly of India took about three years to complete its work.
(D) The Constituent Assembly of India took about four years to complete its work.
45. Which one of the following right under the Indian Constitution guarantees the fundamental right to every resident of a country ?
(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
46. The qualifications for a person to be appointed as the Judge of the Supreme Court under Article 124(3) are
(A) He must be a citizen of India.
In the opinion of the Ministry of Law a distinguished jurist.
Has been a Judge of a High Court for at least five years, or
Has been an advocate of a High Court for five years.
(B) He must be a citizen of India.
In the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist.
Has been a Judge of a High Court for at least five years ..., or
Has been an advocate of a High Court (or two or more such courts in succession) for at least ten years.
(C) He must be a citizen of India.
Has been a Judge of the High Court for ten years
Has been an advocate of the High Court.
(D) He must be a citizen of India.
In the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist.
He must be a sitting judge of a High Court for ten years.
47. Who is known as the Father of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) G.V. Mavalankar (B) Rabi Ray (C) Balram Jakhar (D) P. A. Sangma
48. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees consist exclusively of members of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) The Public Accounts Committee.
(B) The Estimates Committee.
(C) The Committee of Public Undertakings.
(D) The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
49. Which Article of the Constitution of India say that there shall be a President of India ?
(A) Art 61 (B) Art 62 (C) Art 74 (D) Art 52
50. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India ?
(A) The President (B) The Council of Ministers (C) The Supreme Court (D) The Parliament
51. Choose the correct statement with respect to "Right against exploitation" under the Indian Constitution.
(A) Freedom to pay taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
(B) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
(C) Protection of minority schools.
(D) Compulsory military service.
52. Which Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of India ?
(A) 34th Constitutional Amendment Act
(B) 35th Constitutional Amendment Act
(C) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act
(D) 37th Constitutional Amendment Act
53. Choose the correct alternative :
Art. 368 deals with the Constitution amending bills.
(A) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
(B) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Prior recommendation of the President is not required.
(C) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.
(D) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in a joint sitting of Parliament after receiving the assent of the President.
54. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?
(A) Calcutta High Court (B) Orissa High Court (C) Andhra Pradesh High Court (D) Madras High Court
55. Fill in the blank :
A Bill cannot become an Act of Parliament in India, unless and until ______.
(A) it is passed by the Lok Sabha
(B) it is passed by the Rajya Sabha
(C) it is passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) the President of India gives his assent to the Bill
56. Till now how many Judges of the Supreme Court of India have been removed from office through impeachment ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None
57. Article 21-A of the Constitution of India provides for free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years
(A) is a Fundamental Right
(B) is a Legal Right
(C) is a Moral Right
(D) is included in the Directive Principles of state policy
58. The Provision of Declaration of National Emergency is mentioned in which of the following Article ?
(A) Article 352 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 360 (D) Article 365
59. Name the Constitutional Amendment Act that was passed to provide free and compulsory education of all children between 6 and 14 years of age.
(A) 86th Amendment Act. (B) 84th Amendment Act. (C) 83rd Amendment Act. (D) 82nd Amendment Act.
60. Choose the correct option :
(A) A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
(B) A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.
(C) A Money Bill may be introduced in both Houses of Parliament.
(D) A Money Bill cannot be endorsed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
61. Fill in the blank :
In India the concept of single citizenship is adopted from _____.
(A) The French Constitution
(B) The Swiss Constitution
(C) The Constitution of United States of America
(D) The British Constitution
62. Choose the correct alternative :
(A) The Lok Sabha alone may vote on expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
(B) The expenditure that is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is not votable in either House of Parliament.
(C) The expenditure that is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is votable in either House of Parliament.
(D) The Rajya Sabha alone may vote on expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
63. As per the Indian Constitution the Right to Property is a
(A) Fundamental Right (B) Natural Right (C) Economic Right (D) Legal Right
64. If a High Court judgement is issued in a state's official language a translation in which language must also be made available ?
(A) Hindi (B) Both Hindi and English (C) Translation not required (D) English
65. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Swaran Singh Committee
(B) Narasimhan Committee
(C) Raghavan Committee
(D) Malhotra Committee
66. The Head of the Executive in all States is the Governor of the State. How is he appointed ?
(A) The Governor is elected by the people of the State on the basis of adult suffrage.
(B) The Governor is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
(C) The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(D) The Governor is appointed by an electoral college like the President of India.
67. A motion of no confidence against the Government can be introduced in
(A) Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (C) Lok Sabha (D) Neither (A) nor (C)
68. As per the Constitution of India, what is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 530 (B) 540 (C) 550 (D) 552
69. What is the name of the motion to draw the attention of the Lok Sabha to a recent matter of urgent public importance ? If admitted it leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.
(A) Privilege Motion (B) No Confidence Motion (C) Calling Attention Motion (D) Adjournment Motion
70. According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha must meet at least how many times ?
(A) Three times each year with no more than four months between sessions.
(B) At least once a year.
(C) Four times each year.
(D) Twice a year with no more than six months between sessions.
71. Who may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State under the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Parliament may by law abolish a Legislative Council in a State after the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect.
(B) The State Legislative Assembly may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State.
(C) The Rajya Sabha may by a resolution provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State.
(D) The President on the advice of the Council of Ministers may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State.
72. Which Constitutional Amendment Act discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State legislatures ?
(A) 104th Amendment Act. (B) 103rd Amendment Act. (C) 102nd Amendment Act. (D) 101st Amendment Act.
73. When was the Indian Constitution first adopted ?
(A) The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26th January, 1950.
(B) The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26th January, 1949.
(C) The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949.
(D) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November, 1948.
74. A judge of a High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by
(A) the Governor, if the state legislature passes a resolution to this effect by 2/3rd majority.
(B) the President, on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority in each House of Parliament.
(C) the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court on the recommendation of the Parliament.
(D) the Chief Justice of the High Court on the recommendation of the State legislature.
75. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The President is the head of military forces in India.
(B) The President can appoint a Commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs and STs.
(C) The President can declare any area as a Scheduled Area.
(D) The President of India chooses the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
76. Which is the longest written constitution in the world ?
(A) The Constitution of the United States
(B) The Constitution of India
(C) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic of France
(D) The Constitution of Switzerland
77. Choose the correct option :
India has adopted the Parliamentary form of democracy also called the Westminister model. The Parliament consists of
(A) the President and the Lok Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) the President and the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) the Lok Sabha only
78. Sanskrit is the 2nd official language of which state in India ?
(A) Karnataka (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttarakhand (D) Himachal Pradesh
79. When can the Parliament in India make a law on a matter enumerated in the 'State list' ?
(A) When a joint sitting of Parliament passes a resolution to that effect.
(B) When the Lok Sabha by a 2/3rds majority of members present and voting passes a resolution saying that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
(C) When both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha separately passes a resolution that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest.
(D) When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that such legislation is in the national interest.
80. Choose the number of representatives of the Rajya Sabha from the States and the Union Territories :
(A) 238 (B) 212 (C) 200 (D) 250
81. The Government of India revoked the special status, or limited autonomy granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir — when ?
(A) August, 2019 (B) September, 2019 (C) October, 2019 (D) November, 2019
82. Fill in the blank :
According to Article _____ 'Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this Article'.
(A) 365 (B) 366 (C) 367 (D) 368
83. How many Fundamental Duties are included in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13
84. Which is the 25th High Court in India ?
(A) Allahabad High Court (B) Andhra Pradesh High Court (C) Bombay High Court (D) Calcutta High Court
85. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister in India ?
(A) Universal adult suffrage (B) Federalism (C) Representative legislature (D) Parliamentary Democracy
86. If the Government of a State fails to enforce the Directive Principles of the State Policy, a citizen can move which among the following courts to file a writ petition to get them enforced ?
(A) District Court (B) No Court (C) High Court (D) Supreme Court
87. Which Amendment introduced a national Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India from July, 2017 ?
(A) 100th Amendment Act (B) 101st Amendment Act (C) 102nd Amendment Act (D) 103rd Amendment Act
88. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament is appointed by the
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(B) Prime Minister of India.
(C) President of India.
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
89. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in
(A) Part III of the Constitution of India.
(B) Part IV of the Constitution of India.
(C) Part IV A of the Constitution of India.
(D) Schedule IV -A of the Constitution of India.
90. Choose the correct statement stated in the Constitution of India :
(A) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Federation of States.
(B) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
(C) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Quasi federal State.
(D) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Unitary State.
91. Choose the most appropriate alternative :
Parliamentary Government is also known
(A) Responsible Government
(B) Cabinet Government
(C) Westminister forms of Government
(D) All of the above
92. Choose the correct statement :
(A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigation undertaken to secure public interest and demonstrates the availability of justice to socially disadvantaged parties and was introduced by Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice Krishna Ayer. It is an extra judicious remedy and a part of judicial activism to enforce public interest and a vehicle to enforce rights.
(B) Only Supreme Court in India can entertain Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
(C) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is enshrined in the Constitution of India.
(D) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India has not helped deal with major environmental grievances and has not helped victims who are handicapped by poverty, illiteracy, ignorance who have not benefited by the implementation of the laws enacted by the legislature for the benefits of the have nots.
93. The Constitution 89th Amendment Act, 2003 established :
(A) Right to Education as the Fundamental Right to all the children under 14 years in India.
(B) The "National Commission for Scheduled Castes" and the "National Commission for Scheduled Tribes".
(C) Reservation of seats for women in local bodies.
(D) Three language policy.
94. The sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to I 8 years in which year ?
(A) 1984 (B) 1987 (C) 1989 (D) 1990
95. Fill in the blank :
The Constitutional position of the President of India is comparable to ______ .
(A) The US President (B) The British Monarch (C) The French President (D) The Russian President
96. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) The Supreme Court in India is the highest court in appeals.
(B) The power of 'Judicial Review' is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
(C) All doubts arising out of or in connection with the election of a President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final under the Constitution of India.
(D) The Supreme Court shall be a Court of Record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself according to the Constitution of India.
97. When was the first general election to the Lok Sabha in India held ?
(A) 1950 - 51 (B) 1951 - 52 (C) 1953 - 54 (D) 1954 - 55
98. Which Article in the Indian Constitution states that the state shall not deny to any person 'equality before the law' or the 'equal protection of the laws' within the territory of India ?
(A) Article 13 (B) Article 14 (C) Article 15 (D) Article 16
99. Fill in the blank :
Impeachment of the President of India can be initiated _______.
(A) only in the Lok Sabha
(B) only in the Rajya Sabha
(C) in either House of Parliament
(D) in the Supreme Court
100. Who can extend the jurisdiction of a High Court ?
(A) The Parliament of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Supreme Court of India
(D) The Governor of the State
101. Following concept of money supply is called 'narrow money' :
(A) M1 (B) M2 (C) M3 (D) M4
102. Exclusive power to issue currency notes lies with
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Central Govt. Ministry of Finance
(C) Central Govt. Ministry of Home
(D) Both (B) and (C)
103. In the post economic reform period, the tax reform measures implied the following :
(A) Decline in the rates of taxes and reducing evasion
(B) Increase in tax exemption
(C) Increase in the tax rates
(D) Increase in the administrative complexity
104. Overall responsibility of agricultural credit and refinance lies on
(A) RBI (B) NABARD (C) Co-operative bank (D) Land Development Bank
105. Finance Commission is appointed for a term of
(A) three years (B) four years (C) five years (D) six years
106. Find which statement is correct.
Sales Tax
(A) is progressive. (B) is regressive. (C) is non-inflationary. (D) brings distributive justice.
107. Which item does not usually come under India's import basket now-a-days ?
(A) Petroleum (B) Crude oil (C) Fertiliser (D) Food grains
108. Finance Commission is appointed by
(A) The Prime Minister (B) The President (C) The Parliament (D) The Planning Commission
109. Indicate the incorrect statement :
Impact of economic reform was,
(A) unsatisfactory progress of basic capital goods industries.
(B) neglect of agriculture.
(C) increase in security of workers.
(D) growth of unemployment.
110. The Panchayat system was introduced after this Amendment of the Constitution :
(A) 65th Amendment (B) 68th Amendment (C) 72nd Amendment (D) 73rd Amendment
111. Impact of bank nationalisation did not include this :
(A) Total deposits increased
(B) Priority sector loan increased much
(C) Security of depositors' fund declined
(D) Branch expansion took place
112. Abolition of Zamindary system in West Bengal took place in the year
(A) 1951 (B) 1953 (C) 1960 (D) 1961
113. Government expenditure on the following item do not contribute to national income :
(A) Defence expenditure
(B) Subsidy on public enterprises
(C) Interest on loan
(D) Administrative expenditure
114. Which one of the following does not come under the economic liberalisation programme ?
(A) Removal of the system of industrial licensing
(B) Reduction of restrictions relating Monopolies & Restricted Trade Practices (MRTP)
(C) Increase in the import restrictions
(D) Increase in the limit of Foreign Direct Investment
115. Deficit financing is strongly inflationary when
(A) Govt. takes loan from the RBI
(B) Govt. takes loan from the capital market
(C) Govt. borrows from commercial banks
(D) Govt. mobilises small savings from the market
116. Taxation on agricultural income in India is
(A) relatively high. (B) low. (C) proportionate to its contribution. (D) None of the above
117. First Industrial Policy came into existence in the year,
(A) 1947 (B) 1948 (C) 1950 (D) 1956
118. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides employment to,
(A) skilled rural workers. (B) semi skilled rural workers. (C) unskilled workers. (D) Both (A) and (B)
119. Inflation appears when there occurs,
(A) increase in money supply.
(B) one time increase in price level.
(C) increase in profit and production.
(D) continuous increase in price level.
120. Cash reserve ratio (CRR) as an instrument of credit control is,
(A) Direct and mostly effective
(B) Indirect
(C) Effective in a few circumstances
(D) Uncertain in its effectiveness
121. Disinvestment of the public sector enterprises took place because of
(A) capacity unutilisation. (B) low profitability. (C) increased burden of subsidy. (D) All of the above
122. NABARD provides help in the following way :
(A) Providing agricultural refinance facilities
(B) Giving term loans to commercial banks
(C) Giving long-term loans to small industries
(D) Giving loan to State Governments
123. Interest rate paid on cash reserves kept by the banks with RBI is
(A) lower than market lending rate.
(B) higher than market lending rate.
(C) equal to market rate.
(D) no interest paid.
124. Which of the following items does not come under National Income measurement ?
(A) Wages to agricultural labourer paid in kind.
(B) Receipt from second hand sale of an automobile.
(C) Profit of the public sector enterprises.
(D) Value of the product kept for self consumption.
125. Long-term loan to the corporate sector usually comes from
(A) Commercial banks (B) NABARD (C) Lead Banks (D) Capital market
126. Which one of the following does not come under Central Government expenditure :
(A) Debt servicing
(B) Defense expenditure
(C) Maintenance of law and order and police force
(D) Administrative expenses of the Central Government
127. 'Operation Barga' programme beneficialIy affected the following class :
(A) Landlords (B) Agricultural labourer (C) Share croppers (D) Intermediaries
128. Volume of bill finance in the Indian money market is
(A) relatively high. (B) relatively low. (C) medium. (D) excessive.
129. Land revenue is
(A) collected by Central Government and distributed among states.
(B) collected and retained by Central Government.
(C) collected by States and taken by Central Government.
(D) collected and utilised by State Governments.
130. Post economic reform witnessed _______
(A) Very high growth of employment in organised sector.
(B) Very low growth in same sector.
(C) Moderate growth.
(D) Jobless growth in organised sector.
131. Privatisation policy under the structural reform does not imply this :
(A) Increase in monopoly power in industrial field.
(B) Decrease in the role of industrial licensing.
(C) Increase in the importance of public sector enterprise.
(D) Both (A) and (B)
132. Contribution of savings as a percentage to G.D.P. is the highest in the sector _______
(A) Public sector (B) Corporate business sector (C) Household sector (D) Industry sector
133. Public Sector Enterprises (PSE) assumed this role after new economic policy _______
(A) Their importance increased. (B) Their importance decreased. (C) Neutral. (D) Uncertain.
134. Amount earned by Union Excise Duty is shared by
(A) Central Government
(B) State Governments
(C) State Governments and Local Self Governments
(D) Central and State Governments
135. During first two decades of planning foreign exchange position was
(A) very satisfactory (B) unsatisfactory (C) moderate (D) uncertain to state
136. Indicate which one does not apply existence of huge black income creates ______
(A) Inequality in income distribution
(B) Fall in the contribution to Govt. tax pool
(C) High living standard for all
(D) Luxury consumption increases
137. Rate of recovery of agricultural credit issued by the commercial banks is
(A) very high (B) moderate (C) high (D) low
138. The Panchayat system is a
(A) two tier system (B) three tier system (C) four tier system (D) five tier system
139. Role of the RBI during the plan period followed this line :
(A) Expansion of developmental loan
(B) Control of speculative loan
(C) Expansion of banking activities through bill discounting
(D) All of the above
140. In the pre reform period, monetary, fiscal and administrative connection for banking activities were
(A) causes of low profitability of commercial banks.
(B) raised profitability of banks.
(C) supported by financial reforms committees.
(D) raised banking efficiency.
141. The new economic policy took this approach toward foreign direct investment ______
(A) Encouragement (B) Discouragement (C) Neutral (D) No change in previous approval
142. Which statement does not apply
In the pre-reform period public sector enterprises in India witnessed
(A) high inefficiency and subsidy
(B) increased cost of production
(C) high degree of profit
(D) Both (A) and (B)
143. Treasury bills are instruments of the Central Government to secure ______
(A) Long term credit (B) Very long term credit (C) Short term credit (D) Medium term credit
144. Find the incorrect statement :
Green revolution made possible _______
(A) Very low use of chemical fertiliser
(B) Used of HYV seeds
(C) lncrease in the use of agromachinery
(D) Multiple cropping
145. Corporate profit tax is
(A) a state level tax
(B) collected and used by Union Government
(C) collected by State Government
(D) collected by centre, used by State Govt.
146. Bank nationalisation had the following objective :
(A) Branch expansion
(B) Extension of loan to priority sectors
(C) Ensure depositors' security
(D) All the above
147. Which one of the following items is included in National income ?
(A) Subsidy on rationing (B) Scholarship (C) Administrative expenditure (D) Relief grant
148. Open market operations practiced by RBI
(A) are direct credit control technique.
(B) are indirect credit control technique.
(C) assist foreign exchange dealers.
(D) (A) and (C) above
149. Most important source of energy in India :
(A) Hydel power (B) Solar power (C) Nuclear power (D) Thermal power
150. Indian agriculture mostly shows this type of unemployment _______
(A) Voluntary unemployment
(B) Cyclical unemployment
(C) Disguised unemployment
(D) Frictional unemployment
151. Central Government do not collect revenue from these sources :
(A) Central excise duty and Customs duty
(B) Personal Income tax and Corporate tax
(C) Agricultural Income tax and Land Revenue
(D) Wealth tax and Capital gains tax
152. Land Reform aimed at
(A) raising control of Government on land sale.
(B) raising power of the actual farmers.
(C) raising power of the intermediary class.
(D) None of the above
153. Which concept of money supply includes currency, demand deposits with commercial banks, other deposits with RBI, time deposits with commercial banks ?
(A) M1 (B) M2 (C) M3 (D) M4
154. Sectoral distribution as to gross domestic product (G D P) in India shows the following pattern now-a-days :
(A) Percentage share of industry sector is the highest
(B) Percentage share of the services sector is the highest
(C) Percentage share of industries and services sector together are around 50%
(D) None of the above
155. Percentage of people giving personal income tax in India is
(A) high (B) low (C) medium (D) uncertain
156. Contribution of agricultural sector in G.D.P. in India
(A) More than its percentage share in total employment of that sector.
(B) Less than the percentage share in total employment of that sector.
(C) Both are approximately equal.
(D) Uncertain.
157. Agriculture budget in the plan period was proportionately high in ______
(A) First plan (B) Second plan (C) Third plan (D) Fourth plan
158. RBI practices Repo rate to
(A) absorb liquidity. (B) increase supply of liquidity (C) uncertain impact. (D) regulate interest rate.
159. Major part of employment in India arise in this field ______
(A) Organised sector (B) Unorganised sector (C) Public sector (D) Both (A) and (C)
160. Which one is correct ?
To control inflation, RBI
(A) instructs banks to reduce interest rate on lending.
(B) purchases bonds from public.
(C) reduces SLR.
(D) raises CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio)
161. Which statement is not correct ?
Small scale industries in India are advantageous as
(A) they have high employment potential.
(B) highly capital intensive.
(C) use of local skill and material.
(D) capital used per worker relatively low.
162. Post 1991 reform measures gave emphasis on______
(A) Import restriction
(B) Import substitution
(C) Import liberalisation and export promotion
(D) Both (A) and (B)
163. Policy of freight equalisation affected West Bengal
(A) beneficially (B) adversely (C) it was neutral (D) uncertain
164. Inflationary pressure in the domestic market
(A) makes balance of trade unfavourable
(B) improves balance of trade.
(C) does not affect foreign exchange reserve & foreign trade.
(D) the relationship is uncertain.
165. Which one of the following is a correct statement ?
(A) RBI does not control foreign exchange reserve.
(B) RBI does not provide short-term loan to the Central Government.
(C) RBI controls foreign exchange reserve.
(D) RBI has direct control on the non-banking financial intermediaries.
166. Which statement is correct ?
In cooperative farms ________
(A) Farmers pool their land to form a large holding.
(B) Farmers do not face joint responsibility.
(C) Private ownership of land does not remain.
(D) Farmers do not join voluntarily.
167. Committee on financial reform recommended ______
(A) Phase reduction of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(B) Gradual increase in SLR
(C) Making SLR an important credit control measure
(D) Both (B) and (C)
168. Structural Adjustment Programme in India required
(A) fiscal deficit zero
(B) fiscal deficit very low
(C) fiscal deficit very high
(D) fiscal deficit moderately high
169. The programme 'Operation Barga' was undertaken with quick success in
(A) Punjab. (B) West Bengal. (C) Maharastra. (D) None of the above
170. First five decades of planning observed,
(A) Hindu rate of growth of GDP
(B) High growth of per capita income
(C) Decline in per capita income
(D) High growth of GDP
171. Money defined as M1 consists ______
(A) Only chequeable deposits
(B) (A) above + currency
(C) (B) above + mutual fund deposits
(D) None of the above
172. The year of setting up of the Reserve Bank of India is
(A) 1921 (B) 1935 (C) 1947 (D) 1949
173. The status of the Bargadars is
(A) Owner cultivator. (B) Share cropper. (C) Agriculrural labourer. (D) Marginal farmer.
174. During the pre reform period this technique was less used ______
(A) Varying CRR (B) Varying SLR (C) Discount rate mechanism (D) All of the above
175. Point out the wrong statement.
Increase in money supply through deficit financing,
(A) raises production if supply condition is elastic.
(B) it starts multiplier working.
(C) it helps to employ unutilised resources.
(D) it is always inflationary.
176. In a well developed bill market
(A) frequency of bills changing hands will be low.
(B) frequency of bills changing hands will be high.
(C) frequency of bills changing hands will be medium.
(D) market will be neutral.
177. The new economic policy observed this approach toward monopolies
(A) Remove all restrictions on monopolies
(B) Tighten such restrictions
(C) Keep neutral approach
(D) Regulate monopolies partly
178. Petrochemical industries have a long chain effect on downstream industries.
(A) True (B) False (C) Applies to some extent (D) Uncertain
179. Impact of economic reform policies on agriculture was
(A) beneficial. (B) adverse. (C) remained neutral. (D) uncertain.
180. Indicate the statement which is not correct :
The Industrial Policy 1991 witnessed _______
(A) Abolition of industrial licence for majority industries.
(B) Upper limit of foreign investment reduced.
(C) Upper limit of foreign investment raised.
(D) Privatisation of public sector enterprises introduced.
181. The second five year plan gave utmost emphasis on the growth of the following industry :
(A) Consumer goods
(B) Capital goods
(C) Small scale industries and ancillaries
(D) Electronic goods industry
182. Green revolution and new agricultural strategy first appear in the production of
(A) paddy. (B) oil seed. (C) wheat. (D) pulses.
183. Indicate the incorrect statement :
Land reform programme in India aimed at
(A) rent regulation. (B) land ceiling. (C) tenancy security. (D) increasing power of intermediaries
184. Re-Discounting of bills is a source of
(A) long term credit.
(B) short term trade credit.
(C) medium term credit.
(D) assistance for Govt. loans taken from market
185. Proceeds of Personal income tax go to
(A) Central Government
(B) State Governments
(C) State Governments and Local Self Governments
(D) Central and State Governments
186. Maintenance of high statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) was not favoured by
(A) The Chelliah Committee
(B) The Chakraborty Committee
(C) The Narasimham Committee
(D) The Tarapore Committee
187. Economic infrastructure does not include this item :
(A) Road-rail network (B) Electricity generation (C) Telecommunication (D) Programme for literacy
188. Relative importance in Government revenue in India is high in case of
(A) Direct tax (B) Indirect tax (C) Public debt (D) Deficit financing
189. Financial Reforms Committee recommended _______
(A) Administered rate of interest
(B) Deregulation of rate of interest
(C) More loan to non-profitable priority sector
(D) Both (B) and (C)
190. Major part of Indian agriculture shows
(A) capitalist agricultural system. (B) small size farm. (C) large size farm. (D) Co operative farm.
191. Devaluation of Indian currency in 1991 was expected to have this effect :
(A) Decline in exports
(B) Increase in exports
(C) Decline in exports and imports
(D) Increase in imports
192. Priority sector lending by commercial banks _____
(A) Raised the level of non productive assets (npa)
(B) Reduced npa
(C) Uncertain
(D) Remained neutral as to npa
193. Which one of the following statements is not true ?
Mahalanobis strategy of planning implied :
(A) Import substitution
(B) Building of infrastructure and heavy industries
(C) High priority on industrialisation
(D) Globalisation of the economy
194. Money supply when defined as M3, consists of _______
(A) Commercial bank time deposits only
(B) (A) above and currency plus demand deposit
(C) (B) above plus post office bank deposits
(D) Includes (B) above and High power money
195. Literacy rate is the highest among India in
(A) Maharashtra (B) West Bengal (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu
196. Tertiary sector activities include _______
(A) Mining activity. (B) Banking activity. (C) Dairy farming. (D) All of the above
197. The year of Bank nationalisation is
(A) 1965 (B) 1969 (C) 1971 (D) 1973
198. Indicate the correct statement.
Early phase of Indian planning experienced,
(A) Import substitution (B) Import liberalisation (C) Freely floating exchange rate (D) Both (B) and (C)
199. C.R.R. instruments are applicable on ______
(A) Scheduled commercial banks only
(B) (A) + the investment companies
(C) All commercial banks and non banking financial companies
(D) All of the above
200. Point out the incorrect statement :
Excise duty is
(A) not regressive. (B) not unpopular. (C) imposed on exfactory production. (D) None of the above
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