WBCS Main Exam Compulsory Question Paper V - 2016 [The Constitution of India and Indian Economy including role and functions of RBI]

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WBCS Examination Main Compulsory Question Paper V - 2016 [The Constitution of India and Indian Economy including role and functions of RBI]

1. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a Directive Principle ?

    (A) Provision of adequate means of livelihood for all the citizens.

    (B) Provision of employment facilities to all able-bodied persons.

    (C) Protection of workers, especially children.

    (D) Securing of equal pay for equal work to both men and women.

2. Which one of the following Directive Principles is non-Gandhian ?

    (A) Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas.

    (B) Prohibition of the use of intoxicants except for the medicinal purposes.

    (C) Prevention of slaughter of cows, calves and other milch cattle.

    (D) Provision of free and compulsory education for all the children upto the age of fourteen years.

3. Who said that Directive Principles of State Policy are like a cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank ?

    (A) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru       (B) Dr. B. N. Rao         (C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar       (D) Prof. K. T. Shah

4. Which one of the following differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles has been wrongly listed ?

    (A) The Fundamental Rights are negative injunctions, while the Directive Principles are positive instructions to the goverment.

    (B) The Fundamental  Rights are justiciable while the Directive Principles are non-justiciable

    (C) The Fundamental Rights enjoy constitutional basis while the Directive Principles are based on conventions.

    (D) In case of clash between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles the former get precedence.

5. Who said that the emergency powers of the President is a fraud on the Constitution ?

    (A) K.M. Nambiar        (B) K.M. Munshi        (C) Dr. B.N. Rao        (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

6. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been the subject of Maximum litigation and controversy ?

    (A) Right to Property      (B) Right to Freedom       (C) Right to Equality      (D) Right to Freedom of Religion

7. Which one of the following features has been wrongly listed as a feature of Right to Equality ?

    (A) It ensures equality in the matter of appointment to offices under the State. 

    (B) It abolishes all titles, other than academic and military.

    (C) It abolishes untouchability.

    (D) It prohibits special treatments any section of society.

8. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution directs the state to strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting the social order in which justice, social, economic and political shall prevail ?

    (A) Article 25        (B) Article 38        (C) Article 32         (D) Article 39

9. Which Article of the Constitution directs the State to ensure that the wealth and means of production do not get concentrated in few hands ?

    (A) Article 38         (B) Article 39        (C) Article 41       (D) Article 42

10. The First Amendment to the Constitution carried out in 1951 sought to provide socio-economic justice to the
citizens-

      (A) by securing constitutional validity of thirteen Zamindari Abolition Laws in the 9th schedule.

      (B) by laying the ceiling on immovable property which a citizen could hold.

      (C) by reserving seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Parliament and state legislatures.

      (D) by making provision for compulsory acquisition of property in public interest, with minimum compen­sation.

11. Which Article of the constitution seeks to promote the educational and economic interests of weaker sections of people, specially the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes ?

      (A) Article 42        (B) Article 46        (C) Article 39        (D) Article 44

12. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes was created by -

      (A) 87th Amendment       (B) 88th Amendment        (C) 89th Amendment        (D) 92th Amendment

13. Which one of the following amendments of the Constitution abolished the Privy Purses and privileges of the Indian princes ?

      (A) 26th Amendment        (B) 28th Amendment         (C) 30th Amendment        (D) 32nd Amendment

14. The concept of the basic structure of the constitution propounded in the Keshavanand Bharati case was further elaborated and strengthened in-

      (A) Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain case

      (B) Minerva Mills case

      (C) Both (A) And (B)

      (D) None of the Above

15. Which amendment authorised the govt, to fill the backlog of vacancies for the Scheduled Castes (15%) and Scheduled Tribes ([tex]7{1 \over 2}[/tex]%) as these two vacancies are to be treated as a separate class of vacancies to be filled in any succeeding year or years ?

      (A) 81st        (B) 85th        (C) 86th        (D) None of the above

16. Which amendment empowered the state to make Provisions for reservation in promotion in government jobs in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ?

      (A) 74th Amendment       (B) 75th Amendment        (C) 77th Amendment       (D) None of the above

17. A member of Parliament or a State Legislature can be elected as the President, but -

      (A) he has to resign his seat before contesting election.

      (B) he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected.

      (C) he has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election.

      (D) a member of Parliament can contest but a member of State Legislature can not contest.

18. In the election of the President-

      (A) the members of the State Legislative Assemblies enjoy more votes.

      (B) the members of Parliament enjoy more votes,

      (C) the members of State Legislative Assemblies and two houses of Parliament enjoy equal number of votes.

      (D) None of the above

19. During the recess of the Parliament the President can promulgate ordinances-

      (A) with the prior approval of the Parliament.

      (B) with the prior approval of the Supreme Court of India.

      (C) with the consent of the Council of Ministers.

      (D) on his own.

20. Which one of the following amendments was concerned with the extension of reservation of seats tor the Scheduled Castes ?

      (A) Eighth Amendment        (B) 23rd Amendment         (C) 45th Amendment         (D) All of the above

21. Which one of the following amendment of the Constitution did away with the privileges and concessions enjoyed by
the I.C.S. Officers ?

      (A) 24th Amendment      (B) 28th Amendment        (C) 29th Amendment         (D) 42th Amendment

22. The demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time authoritatively conceded by the British Government, though in an indirect way, through-

      (A) Shimla Conference        (B) August Offer         (C) Wavell Plan        (D) None of the. above

23. Indian Legislature became "bicameral" through which of the following ?

      (A) The Morley-Minto Reforms

      (B) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

      (C) Government of India Act, 1935

      (D) Indian Councils Act, 1892

24. Before 26 November, 1949 which among the following was the governing law of India ?

      (A) The Cabinet Mission Plan

      (B) Government of India Act, 1935

      (C) Government of India Act, 1919

      (D) Government of India Act, 1909

25. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was not a member of which of the following committees of the constituent assembly ?

      (A) Committee on the rules of procedure

      (B) Finance and Staff Committee

      (C) Ad hoc Committee on National Flag

      (D) Order of Business Committee

26. Which among the following best supported the idea of inclusion of fundamental rights in our constitution ?

      (A) Simon Commission, 1927

      (B) Nehru Committee Report, 1928

      (C) Swaraj Bill, 1895

      (D) Sapur Committee Report on Constitutional proposals, 1945

27. Under the Constitution it is —

      (A) obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers but is not obliged to follow it.

      (B) it is obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.

      (C) it is not obligatory for the President to seek or accent the advice of the Council of Ministers.

      (D) it is obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers if his own party is in power.

28. The President can declare emergency on ground of the breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the states -

      (A) only on the receipt of report from the Governor of the stale to this effect.

      (B) even without a receipt of a report from the Governor if he is satisfied that situation has arisen in which the govt. of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

      (C) if the Council of Ministers of the States recommends to the President.

      (D) if the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly recommends to the President.

29. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval-

      (A) within one month       (B) within two months         (C) within six months        (D) within one year

30. With the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can be continued for-

      (A) a maximum period of three years.

      (B) a maximum period of one year.

      (C) an indefinite period.

      (D) a maximum period of six months.

31. Which one of the following changes is not effected during the national emergency ?

      (A) The Fundemental Rights of the citizens can be suspended.

      (B) The distribution of revenue between the Union and the States can be modified.

      (C) The President can issue directions to the state with regard to exercise of their powers.

      (D) The President can in his discretion the advice of the Council of Ministers.

32. The Six Freedoms of the Indian Citizens have been enshrined in-

      (A) Articles 14 to 18       (B) Articles 14 to 35        (C) Articles 19       (D) Articles 22

33. The Constitution grants Cultural and Educational Rights with a view to-

      (A) evolve a common national culture.

      (B) eradicate illiteracy from the country.

      (C) to help the minorities conserve their culture.

      (D) None of the above

34. Right to Cultural and Educational Rights implies-

      (A) Provision of free and compulsory education upto High School.

      (B) Special assistance to backward classes to educate them.

      (C) Provision of religious and cultural instructions in schools run by the government or receiving aid out of government funds.

      (D) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

35. The Right to Constitutional Remedies means-

      (A) The right of the citizens to request the parliament to amend the Constitution.

      (B) The right of Indian citizens to mobilise public opinion in favour of some constitutional amendments.

      (C) The right of citizens to disobey the constitution in certain circumstances.

      (D) The right to move the courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights granted by the constitution.

36. Which one of the following writs is issued by the high court to a lower court or a non-judicial public institution to stop proceedings in a particular case ?

      (A) Habeas Corpus         (B) Prohibition         (C) Quo Warranto          (D) Certiorari

37. "All those laws that were in force immediately before the enactment of the constitution shall be void to the extent of inconsistency with the fundamental rights". Essence of Article 13 (1) which quotes this can be placed under which of the following ?

      (A) Judicial Activism       (B) Judicial Review         (C) Discretionary Review        (D) Judicial Interpretation

38. Which among the following was the first programme launched by Government of India to implement the Article 47 of the directive principles of state policy ?

      (A) Integrated Rural Development Programme

      (B) Community Development Programme

      (C) National Rural Employment Programme

      (D) Desert Development Programme

39. Which of the following states in India is exempted from reservation for Scheduled Castes in Panchayati Raj institutions ?

      (A) Rajasthan         (B) Assam         (C) Arunachal Pradesh        (D) Sikim

40. Which among the following justifies the reason that Directive Principles were made explicitly unjustiable ?

      (A) The state may not have political will to implement the principles.

      (B) The state may not need to implement the principles as the Fundamental Rights were made justifiable.

      (C) The implementation of the principles needs resources which the states may not have.

      (D) The Constitution does not provide any clear guidelines to implement the principles.

41. Choose the incorrect sentence among the following :

      (A) The objective resolution passed by Pt. Nehru was what became the Preamble of our constitution.

      (B) Preamble is enforceable in court of law.

      (C) Preamble of Indian constitution has been amended only once in 1976.

      (D) Jawahar Lai Nehru was the strongest advocate of socialism.

42. The Assam Reorganization Act. 1969 created which of the following state / states ?

      (A) Meghalaya only      (B) Meghalaya and mizoram      (C) Mizoram only      (D) Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland

43. Which of the following were added to the list of Union Territories in North-eastern Reorganization Act of 1971 ?

      (A) Mizoram

      (B) Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh

      (C) Sikim, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh

      (D) Tripura and Mizoram

44. Which among the following act is the latest ?

      (A) The Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh (transfer of Territories) Act.

      (B) Bihar Reorganization Act.

      (C) Uttar Pradesh Reorganization Act.

      (D) Madhya Pradesh Reorganization Act.

45. Rajaji Formula was suggested by C. Rajagopalachari in 1944 primarily with a view to-

      (A) resolve the political deadlock in the country.

      (B) seek the withdrawal of communal electorates.

      (C) secure greater weightage for the Congress in provincial govt.

      (D) impress on the government to withdraw from India within a year of the close of Second World War.

46. Which one of the following writs is issued by a higher court asking the lower court to send the record of a particular case to it on the ground that it is not competent to decide the case ?

      (A) Habeas Corpus        (B) Quo Warranto         (C) Certiorari        (D) Mandamus

47. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

      (A) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens cannot be suspended under any circumstances.

      (B) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the Parliament by a two-thirds majority.

      (C) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the national emergency.

      (D) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the national emergency as well as emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state.

48. Which amendment accorded statutory status to the Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ?

      (A) 64th        (B) 65th         (C) 68th         (D) 70th

49. Which one of the following amendments of the Constitution, is related with right to private property ?

      (A) First Amendment       (B) Fourth Amendment        (C) Seventeenth Amendment       (D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following amendments sought to overcome the restrictions on the powers of the Parliament to amend the Fundamental Rights (as per decision of Supreme Court in Golak Nath case) ?

      (A) 23rd Amendment       (B) 24th Amendment        (G) 25th Amendment       (D) None of the above

51. Constitutionally the members of the Council of Ministers hold office-

      (A) during the pleasure of the Presidsnt.

      (B) during the pleasure of the Speaker.

      (C) during the pleasure of the Parliament.

      (D) during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

52. In Indian states the tribal population is largest in-

      (A) Assam and Tripura

      (B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

      (C) Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh

      (D) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand

53. The maximum duration for which the Vice-President may officiate as President is-

      (A) 1 year        (B) 3 months         (C) 1 months        (D) 6 months

54. What rate of interest is effective at the time of giving short-term loan to the Commercial Banks by the Reserve Bank of India ?

      (A) Repo Rate        (B) Bank Rate         (C) Reverse Repo Rate         (D) None of the above

55. Which among the following Article deals with the rights of citizenships of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside of India ?

      (A) Article 6        (B) Article 7        (C) Article 8        (D) Article 9

56. The Article 243F deals with-

      (A) disqualification from being a member of panchayat under any law.

      (B) every panchayat is continued for a period of 5 years.

      (C) the panchayat can impose taxes and raise funds.

      (D) some seats are reserved for SCs and STs in the states.

57. 'Contempt of Court' places restriction on which Fundamental Right ?

      (A) Right to Freedom        (B) Right against Exploitation        (C) Right io Equality       (D) Right to Religion

58. When is the annual meeting of Gram Sabha being held ?

      (A.) December         (B) June         (C) October         (D) August

59. In which year the metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70 member legislative assembly ?

      (A) 1990        (B) 1992         (C) 1993         (D) 1994

60. Which of the following article was omitted from the Indian constitution by the 80th Amendment bill ?

      (A) Article 268         (B) Article 269         (C) Article 270        (D) Article 272

61. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development-

      (1) Low birth rate with low death rate

      (2) High birth rate with high death rate

      (3) High birth rate with low death rate

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below

      (A) 1, 2, 3         (B) 2, 1,3         (C) 2, 3, 1       (D) 3, 2, 1

62. Which of the following is a function of NABARD ?

      (A) Monitoring flow of ground level credit in agriculture

      (B) Credit planning and monitoring

      (C) Formulation of operational guidelines for rural financial institutions

      (D) All of the above

63. The administrative relation between the centre and the state are outlined in-

      (A) Articles 256-263        (B) Articles 245-254        (C) Articles 264-300        (D) Articles 250-260

64. The percentage of demand and time liabilities that banks have to keep with RBI is-

      (A) SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio)

      (B) CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio)

.     (C) OMO (Open Market Operations)

      (D) Bank Rate

65. In the composition of the National Income in India the contribution of the --------- is the highest-

      (A) Primary sector         (B) Secondary        (C) Services sector        (D) Social sector

66. January 26, 1957 is known for which of the following ?

      (A) Second parliamentary term began

      (B) Second general elections

      (C) Second five year plan terms started

      (D) Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force

67. Judicial Review power of the Supreme Court means the power to-

      (A) review its own judgement

      (B) review the functioning of judiciary in the country

      (C) examine the constitutional validity of the laws

      (D) undertake periodic review of the constitution.

68. "A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be stopped" is known in parliamentary terminogy as-

      (A) Session        (B) Closure       (C) Resolution        (D) De jure

69. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India in-

      (A) Jujy 1946         (B) July 1950         (C) July 1947        (D) August 1947

70. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha (552) was fixed according to-

      (A) 1981 Census        (B) 1961 Census       (C) 1951 Census       (D) 1971 Census

71. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal Councils ?

      (A) Government of India Act, 1935

      (B) Indian Independence Act, 1947

      (C) People's Representation Act, 1950

      (D) States Reorganization Act, 1956

72. What is the percentage of people below Poverty line according to Rangarajan Committee ?

      (A) 32 per cent        (B) 29.5 per cent        (C) 26 per cent       (D) 40 per cent

73. Credit Planning in the banking sector of the country has been introduced by-

      (A) Reserve Bank of India      (B) State Bank of India       (C) Commercial Banks      (D) All of the above

74. How many members were there in Constitutional Assembly ?

      (A) 389        (B) 395        (C) 405       (D) 379

75. Which among the following committees recommended to set up an "Equal Opportunity Commission'' ?

      (A) Sarkaria Commission         (B) Sachar Committee

      (C) Bhagawati Committee        (D) Chawla Committee

76. The formation of the Council of Ministers starts with -

      (A) the ordering of the general election of Parliament.

      (B) the appointment of the Prime Minister.

      (C) the appointment of the President.

      (D) the formal notification of the President.

77. The time allowed to the members of a house to ask question to the minister concerned, is called-

      (A) The Question Hour       (B) Zero Hour        (C) Adjournment Motion        (D) Call Attention Motion

78. Which of the following duties is imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government ?

      (A) Stamp Duties        (B) Railways       (C) Agriculture      (D) None of the above

79. What are the institutional sources of agricultural credit in our country ?

      (A) Commercial Banks      (B) Regional Rural Banks       (C) NABARD       (D) All the above stated sources

80. The writ of prohibition issued by Supreme Court or High Court is issued against-

      (A) Administrative and Judicial authorities.

      (B) Only administrative authorities.

      (C) Judicial or quasi judicial authorities.

      (D) Government.

81. "The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people", which Article states this ?

      (A) 75(2)         (B) 75(1)          (C) 75(4)        (D) 75(3)

82. The 59th Constitutional Amendment act was intended to-

      (A) Curb political defection

      (B) Impose emergency in Punjab

      (C) Prevent the practice of Sati

      (D) Prevent communal disturbance

83. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly ?

      (A) 40        (B) 60         (C) 50        (D) 70

84. Which of the following taxes is levied by the State Government only ?

      (A) Entertainment Tax       (B) Wealth Tax        (C) Income Tax         (D) Corporation Tax

85. Open market operation refers to-

      (A) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI.

      (B) borrowing by scheduled banks to industry and trade.

      (C) purchase and sale of government securities.

      (D) deposit mobilisation.

86. Operation Barga in West Bengal was introduced in-

      (A) 1977        (B) 1978        (C) 1979        (D) 1980

87. Which one of the following articles deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the Advocate General of State ?

      (A) Article 155        (B) Article 165        (C) Article 175       (D) Article 185

88. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint Committee on Office of Profit ?

      (A) 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

      (B) 15 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha

      (C) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

      (D) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha

89. What is the main objective of the 12th Five year Plan ?

      (A) Faster and inclusive growth

      (B) Faster and sustainable growth

      (C) Inclusive and sustainable growth

      (D) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth

90. Which of the following benefits from inflation ?

      (A) Lender        (B) Borrower       (C) Both        (D) None of the above

91. What is Zero Hour ?

      (A) When the proposals of the opposition are considered.

      (B) When matters of utmost importance are raised.

      (C) Interval between morning and afternoon sessions

      (D) When a Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha.

92. Which of the following is the implementing agency for National Agricultural Insurance scheme ?

      (A) Food Corporation of India

      (B) Commission for Agricultural costs and Prices

      (C) Agricultural Insurance Company of India Limited

      (D) NABARD

93. What are the principal items of India's import at present-

      (A) Electronic goods      (B) Chemical items       (C) Gold and Silver      (D) Fuel (petroleum goods)

94. Supreme Court of India has given a landmark guideline spelled out the restrictions on the Union Government's
power to dismiss a state government as per the Article 356 of the Indian Constitution in which of the following case ?

      (A) Minerva Mills Case       (B) S..R. Bommai Case        (C) Sajjan Singh Case       (D) Golaknath Case

95. The Constitution was amended for the first time in-

      (A) 1961       (B) 1971        (C) 1951       (D) 1981

96. Which among the following statement is correct ?

      (A) There are provisions that a retired judge of Supreme Court only can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.

      (B) There are provisions that a retired judge of Supreme Court and High Courts can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.

      (C) There are provisions that a retired judge of High Courts only can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.

      (D) None of the above.

97. Which of the following was included as part of the land reforms initiated in India ?

      (A) Abolition of intermediaries

      (B) Tenancy reforms

      (C) Reorganisation of agriculture

      (D) All of the above

98. Who summons the meeting of the Gram Panchayat Sabha ?

      (A) B.D.O         (B) S.D.O        (C) Gram Pradhan         (D) Zilla Parishad

99. Which among the following article is specifically excluded from the purview of the procedure of amendment as prescribed in Article 368 ?

      (A) Article 54        (B) Article 55        (C) Article 214       (D) Article 169

100. Which among the following is not correctly matched ?

        (A) Schedule Two- Salaries and Allowances

        (B) Schedule Five- Scheduled Areas

        (C) Schedule Six- Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram

        (D) Schedule Ten- Panchayats

101. Foreign Direct Investment in India is the highest from --------

        (A) United States        (B) Mauritius         (C) Japan        (D) Korea

102. Which of the following states has the literacy rate lower than the national average ?

        (A) Karnataka        (B) West Bengal         (C) Andhra Pradesh         (D) Maharashtra

103. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed ?

        (A) The members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister

        (B) He allocates portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers

        (C) He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers

        (D) He can dismiss the Council of Ministers if he finds that the members are not cooperating with him

104. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution lays down the establishment of the -

        (A) Planning Commission        (B)  Inter-State Council

        (C) River waters Tribunal         (D) Finance Commission

105. Under which Article of the Constitution is protection and interests of the minorities is envisaged ?

        (A) Article 32       (B) Article 19       (C) Article 29        (D) Article 22

106. In which year was the first Panchayat election held ?

        (A) 1978        (B) 1980        (C) 1982        (D) 1981

107. Which one of the following steps can not be taken by the President during the Financial Emergency ?

        (A) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such canons of financial propriety as he deems desirable.

        (B) He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens.

        (C) He can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil servants.

        (D) He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.

108. The Untouchable Law was enacted in-

        (A) 1950         (B) 1952         (C) 1951         (D) 1953

109. The monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India tackled the economic depression in recent years by

        (A) lowering the Repo rate and Reverse repo rate.

        (B) lowering the rate of marginal Standing Facilities.

        (C) lowering the Statutory Liquidity Ratio and the Cash Reserve Ratio.

        (D) All of the above.

110. Sampoorna Grameen Swarozgar Yojana was introduced from -

        (A) April 1999       (B) September 2001       (C) January 2002       (D) February 2003

111. Which of the following parts of Indian Constitution has only one article ?

        (A) Part XVII       (B) Part XVIII        (C) Part XIX       (D) Part XX

112. Krishi Vikas Yojana was introduced in the ———

        (A) Tenth Five Year Plan          (B) Eleventh Five Year Plan

        (C) Twelfth Five Year Plan       (D) Second Five Year Plan

113. On the basis of the Report of the Census Commission, the biggest city in India is-

        (A) Kolkata         (B) Mumbai          (C) Delhi         (D) Nagpur

114. In the Council of States in India, all the States are not equally represented because -

        (A) the states that joined the Indian Union did not demand equal representation

        (B) no independent states existed in India voluntarily seeking Union as in the USA.

        (C) in the Constituent Assembly the spokesmen of States' rights did not demand equal representation.

        (D) the dominant Congress party in the Constituent Assembly wanted unitary government.

115. Which among the following statements is not correct ?

        (A) All money bills can originate in Lok Sabha only

        (B) Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha only.

        (C) Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.

        (D) No confidence motion against Council of Ministers is exclusive power of Lok Sabha.

116. Which among the following paid is not correctly matched ?

        (A) Part Ill — Fundamental Rights.

        (B) Part XI — Relationships between the Union and States.

        (C) Part XII — Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits.

        (D) Part XIX — Amendment of the constitution.

117. The contribution of agriculture and allied sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India in 2012-13 was —

        (A) 15%       (B) 14.1%       (C) 17%        (D) 20%

118. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as members upto the age of —

        (A) 60 years       (B) 58 years       (C) 62 years        (D) 65 years

119. Has the inequality of income been reduced very much because of increased national income in India in the last
three decades ?

        (A) Yes         (B) No         (C) May be         (D) May be not

120. The Governor of a state can —

        (A) nominate one third members of Legislative Assembly

        (B) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Assembly

        (C) nominate one third members of Legislative Council

        (D) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Council

121. Which was the first state established on the basis of linguistic ?

        (A) U.P.        (B) Andhra Pradesh         (C) Tamil Nadu         (D) Kerala

122. Arrange the following Indian states in descending order from urbanisation point of view.

        (1) West Bengal        (2) Tamil Nadu        (3) Maharashtra        (4) Gujarat

        Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

        (A) 1, 2, 3. 4         (B) 2, 3, 4, 1         (C) 3, 4, 2, 1         (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

123. Article 13 of Indian constitution uses the words "to the extent of such inconsistency be void" —which of the following doctrines is coherent to this ?

        (A) Doctrine of Eclipse        (B) Doctrine of Waiver      (C) Doctrine of Severability       (D) Doctrine of Lapse

124. The financial functions of the Council of Ministers include the right of—

        (A) to certify whether a bill is a money bill or not.

        (B) to prepare and introduce the budget in the Parliament.

        (C) to control expenditure out of the Contingency Fund of India.

        (D) to appoint Finance Commission from time to time.

125. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office -

        (A) by the President at his discretion.

        (B) by the Rajya Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.

        (C) by the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.

        (D) by the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha jointly by passing a vote of no confidence against it.

126. The condition of indirect taxes in the country's revenue is approximately —

        (A) 70%        (B) 75%        (C) 80%         (D) 86%

127. The average rate of domestic savings (gross) for the Indian economy is currently estimated to be in the range of -

        (A) 15 to 20 %         (B) 20 to 25 %          (C) 25 to 30 %        (D) 30 to 35 %

128. At what time India announced full convertibility of Rupee in the current account into foreign currency ?

        (A) 1991         (B) 1992         (C) 1993          (D) 1994

129. More than one-third of India's population is concentrated in the states of -

        (A) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar

        (B) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

        (C) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal

        (D) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh

130. The market for transaction of Government Securities is called -

        (A) Gilt-edged market       (B) Industrial Securities market        (C) Call money market      (D) None of the above

131. Sensitive Index or Sensex represents the prices of shares of the main —— shares in the stock exchange.

        (A) 40 shares         (B) 30 shares          (C) 50 shares         (D) 60 shares

132. Which of the following is not advantage of full capital account convertability ?

        (A) Encourages import        (B) Boosts exports       (C) Easy access to forex

        (D) Promotes trade and capital flows between nations

133. The RBI can increase the money supply in the market by-

        (A) selling government securities.

        (B) buying government securities.

        (C) borrowing money from Commercial Banks.

        (D) None of the above.

134. The tax levied on the interstate trade of goods is-

        (A) Sales tax         (B) Excise tax         (C) Service tax        (D) Central Sales tax

135. What is the estimated rate of growth in the second year of the 12th Five Year Plan of India ?

        (A) 4.7 per cent        (B) 4.9 per cent         (C) 4.5 per tent        (D) 4.3 per cent

136. Which of the following was not an objective of the 1956 industrial policy ?

        (A) Development of co-operative sector

        (B) Expansion of public sector

        (C) Develop heavy and machine making industries

        (D) None of the above

137. Who was the Chairman of the Tax Reforms Committee in 1991 ?

        (A) C. Rangarajan        (B) Raja C. Chelliah        (C) Partha Sarathi Som       (D) None of the above

138. Which among the following items is taken as the real measure of a country's international competitiveness —

        (A) Real Exchange Rate

        (B) Nominal Exchange Rate

        (C) Superfluous Exchange Rate

        (D) None of the above

139. What are the conditions to be fulfilled by a country including India to obtain structural adjustment loan from the World Bank ?

        (A) Privatisation         (B) Liberalisation         (C) Globalisation       (D) All of the above

140. In pursuance with the recommendations of Narsimhan Committee, the RBI has framed new guidelines-

        (A) to govern entry of new private sector banks to make the banking sector more competitive

        (B) to reduce the freedom given to the banks to rationalise their existing branch network

        (C) to set up more foreign exchange banks

        (D) to lend more easily for industrial development

141. The Co-operative credit societies have a —

        (A) two-tier structure       (B) three-tier structure       (C) four-tier structure       (D) five-tier structure

142. The Second Five Year Plan of India gave special emphasis on-

        (A) Labour intensive industries

        (B) Heavy and capital goods industries

        (C) Consumer goods industries

        (D) Small scale and cottage industries

143. The ceiling on foreign investment was revised in the Industrial Policy 1991 from 40 per cent to-

        (A) 49 per cent        (B) 50 per cent       (C) 51 per cent        (D) 52 per cent

144. Operating parameters of commercial banks as percentage assets are the highest case of-

        (A) Foreign banks       (B) Private banks       (C) All scheduled commercial banks      (D) None of the above

145. Revenues from Service Tax have been-

        (A) increasing year after year

        (B) decreasing year after year

        (C) static year after year

        (D) None of the above

146. Which one of the following was launched with the objective of helping the poor in rural areas to become self employed ?

        (A) DPAP         (B) IRDP          (C) TRYSEM          (D) DDP

147. The Goverment Budget consists of which main components ?

        (A) Revenue Budget and Capital Budget

        (B) Capital Budget only

        (C) Revenue Budget only

        (D) None of the above

148. When was the Infrastructure Development Finance Company constituted ?

        (A) During the Eighth Five Year Plan

        (B) During the Ninth Five Year Plan

        (C) During the Tenth Five Year Plan

        (D) During the Seventh Five Year Plan

149. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment
inflow into India ?

        (A) Chemicals other than fertilizers

        (B) Services sector

        (C) Food Processing

        (D) Telecommunication

150. Mention the weakness of the nationalised commercial banks.

        (A) Increase in Non-performing assets

        (B) Decline of Capital Adequacy Ratio

        (C) Low Capita! Asset Ratio

        (D) All of the above

151. What has been the average rate of increase in agricultural production in the Eleventh Five Year Plan ?

        (A) 3%         (B) 4%        (C) 4.1%        (D) 3.1%

152. Devaluation of currency leads to —

        (A) fall in domestic prices

        (B) increase in domestic prices

        (C) can't be predicted

        (D) None of the above

153. Foreign Direct Investment ceilings in the telecom sector have been raised from 74% to -

        (A) 80%         (B) 83%         (C) 90%         (D) 100%

154. In which among the following years a new 'Liberalized Industrial Policy' in India was announced for the first time ?

        (A) 1986         (B) 1991        (C) 1992        (D) 1993

155. The Industrial Policy of India was first announced in-

        (A) 1948         (B) 1936         (C) 1991        (D) 1990

156. Regional Rural Banks work at -

        (A) Hobli level        (B) Taluk level        (C) District level        (D) All levels

157. The components of HDI is / are

        (A) Life expectancy index        (B) Infant mortality rate

        (C) Population growth rate        (D) All of the above

158. Which of the following states introduced Employment Guarantee Scheme first ?

        (A) Madhya Pradesh        (B) Maharashtra         (C) Tamil nadu         (D) Karnataka

159. "Twenty point programme" was launched in the year

        (A) 1969         (B) 1975         (C) 1977        (D) 1980

160. New National Food Security Mission (NFSM) with an expenditure of Rs. 4882 crore in the 11th plan aims at ensuring adequate supply of -

        (A) rice, cereals, pulses         (B) wheat, cereals, pulses

        (C) rice, wheat, pulses         (D) rice, cereals, wheat

161. Which Government introduced Smart Card for unorganised sector workers ?

        (A) Gujarat         (B) Maharashtra         (C) Bihar         (D) Delhi

162. When was the EXIM Bank of Export-Import Bank set up in India ?

        (A) 1980        (B) 1982         (C) 1985        (D) 1987

163. Rapid industrialisation is the basic objective of -

        (A) Second Five Year Plan         (B) Third Five Year Plan

        (C) Fourth Five Year Plan          (D) Fifth Five Year Plan

164. The sources of non-tax revenue for government of India are -

        (A) net receipts from railway

        (B) net receipts from postal department

        (C) recovery of loans and advances 

        (D) All of the above

165. Which of the following industries was de-reserved in 1993 ?

        (A) Atomic energy       (B) Atopic minerals        (C) Mining of copper and zinc        (D) Railways

166. India's economic crisis in 1991 was mainly the outcome of the following -

        (A) Acute Fiscal deficit crisis

        (B) Balance of Payments crisis

        (C) High rate of inflation

        (D) All of the above

167. What are the arguments in favour of crop sharing ?

        (A) Land owner is sure of getting a portion of the produced crop

        (B) If the share of land owner remains fixed, the farmer tries to maximise production

        (C) In this system, it is possible to make the optimum use of inputs

        (D) All the arguments stated above

168. The banks are required to maintain certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called --

        (A) Statutory Liquid Ratio       (B) Cash Reserve Ratio        (C) Liquid Ratio       (D) Statutory Ratio

169. In India which one among the following formulates the fiscal policy ?

        (A) Planning Commission

        (B) Ministry of Finance

        (C) Finance Commission

        (D) The Reserve Bank of India

170. The dual roles of the Reserve Bank is the Regulatory and Promotional roles have made the monetary policy a 'policy of controlled expansion' — How ?

        (A) By maintaining a safe limit to credit expansion required for development of the country.

        (B) By loweriing the Cash Reserve Ratio and Repo Rate within limits.

         (C) By helping the growth process through raising the availability of finance for development of agriculture, industry, export trade and service sector

         (D) All the above

171. On which one of the following is the benefits received principle of taxation to achieve optimally bases ?

        (A) Marginal benefit received

        (B) Total benefit received

        (C) Average benefit received

        (D) Ability to pay for the benefit

172. In India the concept of 'minimum needs' and 'directed antipoverty programmes' were innovation of-

        (A) Fourth Five Year Plan        (B) Fifth Five Year Plan

        (C) Sixth Five Year Plan          (D) Seventh Five Year Plan

173. What is the primary Deficit in the Budget prepared by the finance ministry ?

        (A) Total Expenditure — Total Revenue

        (B) Fiscal Deficit — Interest Payments

        (C) Revenue Expendiure — Revenue Receipts

        (D) Capita! Expenditure — Capital Revenue

174. The most important source of capital formation in India has been -

        (A) Household saving

        (B) Public sector saving 

        (C) Government revenue surpluses

        (D) Corporate saving

175. The process by which RBI or any Central Bank protects the economy against adverse economic shocks is known
as -

        (A) protection         (B) liberalisation         (C) stabilisation        (D) sterilisation

176. Devolopment expenditure of the Central Government does not include —

        (A) Defence expenditure

        (B) Expenditure on economic services

        (C) expenditure on social and community services

        (D) grant to states

177. State can earn maximum revenue through -

        (A) land revenue      (B) custom revenue       (C) commercial taxes       (D) excise duties on intoxicants

178. In India, inflation measured by the -

        (A) Wholesale Price Index Number

        (B) Consumer Price Index for urban non-manual workers

        (C) Consumer Price Index for agricultural workers

        (D) National Income Deflation

179. In Indian states, the state financial corporation has been assistance mainly to develop -

        (A) agricultural farms

        (B) cottage industry

        (C) large scale industries

        (D) medium and small scale industries

180. Factors responsible for current inflation are —

        (A) circulation of black money

        (B) government expenditure on subsidy

        (C) excess of demand over supply of goods

        (D) All of the above

181. Which of the following is not included under the money market ?

        (A) RBI         (B) Commercial Banks         (C) SEBI        (D) None of the above

182. Which among the following will be a debit entry in India's balance of payments ?

        (A) Imports of goods by India

        (B) Income of Indian investments abroad

        (C) Receipts of transfer payments

        (D) Exports of services by India

183. Economic growth in India will happen necessarily if there is -

        (A) Population growth

        (B) Capital formation

        (C) Technical progress in the global economy

        (D) All of the above

184. Which of the following banks was not Nationalised in 1969 ?

        (A) Vijaya Bank       (B) Canara Bank       (C) Bank of India       (D) Central Bank of India

185. Which of the following planning is executed at the grass root level ?

        (A) Centralised planning      (B) Decentralised planning       (C) Fixed planning     (D) Imperative planning

186. What is MAT ?

        (A) Maximum Alternate Tax     (B) Minimum Alternate Tax     (C) Multiple Alternate Tax     (D) Major Alternate Tax

187. Professional tax is imposed by the —

        (A) Central Government

        (B) State Government 

        (C) Both Central and State Government

        (D).None of the above

188. Revenues collected from Professional tax and used by the -

        (A) Central Government 

        (B) State Government

        (C) Both Central and State Government

        (D) None of the above

189. What is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) ?

        (A) The fraction of the deposits that Commercial Banks lend to the customer

        (B) The fraction of the deposits that RBI must keep with Commercial Banks

        (C) The fraction of the deposits that Commercial Bank must keep with RBI

        (D) None of the above

190. In the First Five Year Plan of India, priority was given to -

        (A) Food and agricultural

        (B) Industrial production

        (C) Reducing unemployment

        (D) None of the above

191. In India, inflation measured by the -

        (A) National Income Deflation

        (B) Whole sale Price Index Number

        (C) Consumer Price Index

        (D) None of the above

192. Who issues metallic coins in India ?

        (A) RBI

        (B) Government of India 

        (C) Banks and Financial Institutions

        (D) Any of the above can issue it

193. Lead Bank Scheme as a part of Credit Planning has been introduced by -

        (A) Commercial Banks in district wise arrangement

        (B) Regional Rural Banks

        (C) State Co-operative Banks

        (D) Reserve Bank of India

194. What is the Global rank of India in terms of its purchasing power parity ?

        (A) 3rd        (B) 5th       (C) 10th        (D) 17th

195. When was the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act implemented ?

        (A) 1950        (B) 1970        (C) 1993        (D) 2003

196. National Food Security Mission was introduced in the -

        (A) Tenth Five Year Plan

        (B) Eleventh Five Year Plan

        (C) Twelfth Five Year Plan 

        (D) Ninth Five Year Plan

197. Which of the following governmental steps has proved relatively effective on controlling the double dight rate inflation in the Indian economy during recent years ?

        (A) Containing budgetary deficits and unproductive expenditure

        (B) Streamlined public distribution system

        (C) Enhanced rate of production of all consumer goods

        (D) Pursuing an export oriented strategy

198. What is FEMA ?

        (A) First Exchange Management Act

        (B) Foreign Exchequer Management Act

        (C) Foreign Exchange Management Act

        (D) Foreign Evaluation Management Act

199. India is regarded as a country with 'Demographic Divide'. This is due to -

        (A) its high population in the age group below 15 years

        (B) its high population in the age group below 15 - 64 years

        (C) its high population in the age group above 65 years

        (D) its high total population

200. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on-

        (A) January 1, 1949       (B) April 1, 1948        (C) January 1, 1948       (D) April 1, 1949

***

 

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