WBCS Exam Main Compulsory Question Paper - 2014 [Paper - V]

1.  Which one of the following amendments added the word ‘Secular’ to the preamble of the Indian Constitution

(A) 44th Amendment        (B) 42nd Amendment        (C) 43rd Amendment        (D) 45th Amendment


2.  The Constitution of India describes India as a :

(A) Union of states        (B) Quasi federal

(C) A federation of states and Union territories

(D) Partly unitary and partly federal


3.  Which one of the following chapter provisions has been described as the soul of the  Constitution ?

(A) The chapter on Fundamental Rights 

(B) The chapter on Directive Principal of State Policy

(C) The Preamble

(D) The provisions regarding judicial review 


4.  The power to form new states or change the boundaries of the existing states rests with

(A) The President       (B) The Parliament       (C) The Election Commission      (D) None of the above


5.  The States Reorganisation Commission set up in 1953 to consider the demand for linguistic states, was headed by :

(A) Saiyid Fazl Ali       (B) K. M. Panniker        (C) H. N. Kunzru         (D) M. C. Mahajan


6.  The States re-organisation Act, 1956 divided the entire country into :

(A) 22 states and 9 union territories

(B) 14 states and 9 union territories

(C) 17 states and 7 union territories

(D) Four categories of states


7.  The Constitution of India provides for :

(A) Single citizenship

(B) Double citizenship

(C) Contains no provision regarding citizenship

(D) Provides multiple citizenship


8.   India borrowed the idea of Directive Principle of State Policy from the Constitution of :

(A) The Weimar Republic of Germany

(B) The Republic of Ireland

(C) The South Africa

(D) None of the above


9.  In which part of the Constitution does the concept of welfare state find elaboration ?

(A) Preamble

(B) Fundamental Rights

(C) Directive Principle of State Policy

(D) All of the above


10.  Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy ?

(A) The state shall not deny to any person equality before law

(B) The state shall not discriminate against any person on grounds of religion; race, caste, sex or place of birth

(C) Untouchability is abolished and practice in any form shall be punishable by law

(D) The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life


11.  ‘Right to property’ is a :

(A) Fundamental Rights       (B)  Directive Principle         (C) Legal Right       (D) Social Right


12.  Which one of the following is not a fundamental right ?

(A) Right against exploitation

(B) Equal pay for equal work

(C) Equality before law

(D) Right to freedom of religion


13.  The verdict by the Supreme Court that the original (basic) structure of the Constitution cannot be amended was given in which case ?

(A) Sajjan Singh case          (B) Minerva Mills case

(C) GolakNath’s case          (D) Keshvananda Bharati case


14.  The Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of :

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(C) State Legislatures and Lok Sabha

(D) None of the above


15.  The President of India can nominate —— members to the Lok Sabha and —— members to the Rajya Sabha

(A) 12,  2         (B) 2,  12        (C) 2,  10        (D) 10,  2


16.  Who among the following did not serve as the Vice President of India before becoming the President of India ?

(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(D) Shankar Dayal Sharma


17 .  Out of the following who served as the first Vice President of India ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad       (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan       (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain       (D) V. V, Giri


18.  In which article of the Constitution of India has the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha been provided ?

(A) Article 104        (B) Article 108         (C) Article 133        (D) Article 143


19.  The first Five Year Plan in India was launched in the year :

(A) 1951       (B) 1949        (C) 1953        (D) 1947


20.  The first Election Commissioner of India was :

(A) S.S. Verma        (B) B.C.Roy       (C) Sukumar Sen       (D) H. J. Kania


21.  Which among the following is the middle unit of Three Tier Panchayati Raj System ?

(A) Gram Panchayat        (B) Panchayat Samiti       (C) Zila Parishad        (D) Gram Sabha


22.  Sarkaria Commission was set up in the year :

(A) 1982         (B) 1983         (C) 1984         (D) 1985


23.  Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with

(A) Govt. of India Act, 1918  

(B) Govt. of India Act, 1920

(C) Govt. of India Act, 1930

(D) Govt, of India Act, 1919


24.  Unlike that of the Lok Sabha what is the period of the Rajya Sabha ?

(A) 6 years         (B) 5 years         (C) It is a Permanent House         (D) 2 years


25.  The guardian of the Indian Constitution is :

(A) The President of India

(B) The Parliament of India

(C) The Supreme Court of India

(D The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers


26.  The Lok Sabha was first constituted in :

(A) 1947        (B) 1952        (C) 1950        (D) 1951


27.  Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the state list ?

(A) Article 229         (B) Article 249         (C) Article 239        (D) Article 259


28.  The first Finance Commission was constituted in :

(A) 1951       (B) 1962        (C) 1947        (D) 1952


29.  The Anti-Defection Law was enacted in :

(A) 1985        (B) 1980        (C) 1983         (D) 1982


30.  The right to Constitutional remedy in the Indian Constitution is provided for under :

(A) Article 19        (B) Article 32         (C) Article 15         (D) Article 39


31.  Which one among the following is not stipulated in the Constitution of India ?

(A) Union Public Service Commission

(B) Election Commission of India

(C) Council of Ministers

(D) The Planning Commission


32.  Nagarpalika bill was first introduced in the Parliament during the Prime Ministership of :

(A) Rajiv Gandhi        (B) Narashimha Rao         (C) V. P. Singh       (D) Indira Gandhi


33.  Identify the correct chronological order of the following landmark judgement by the Supreme Court :

(i) Minerva Mills case

(ii) Golak Nath case

(iii) A. K. Gopalam case

(iv) Ninth Schedule of the Constitution case

(A) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)        (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)       (C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)        (D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)


34.  Anti-Defection law was placed in :

(A) The Preamble

(B) The Fundamental Rights chapter in the Constitution

(C) 6th schedule of the Constitution

(D) 10th schedule of the Constitution


35.  Arrange the following in chronological order and use the codes given below :

(i) Keshavananda Bharati case

(ii) Golaknath case

(iii) Minerva Mills case

(iv) Sajjan Singh case Codes

(A) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)        (B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)        (C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)        (D) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)


36.  Which Article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution ?

(A) 370       (B) 368         (C) 390        (D) 376


37.  The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in :

(A) either House of the Parliament

(B) a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament

(C) the Lok Sabha alone

(D) the Rajya Sabha alone


38.  Who of the following constitutes a Finance Commission for India ?

(A) The President of India

(B) The Prime Minister

(C) The Union Finance Minister

(D) The Union Cabinet


39.  Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?

(A) Andhra Pradesh        (B) Kolkata         (C) Chennai        (D) Odisha


40. District Judges in a state are appointed by the :

(A) Governor

(B) Chief Justice of High Court

(C) Council of Ministers of the State

(D) Advocate General of the State


41.  When a Bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, within what time he must return the Bill ?

(A) Three months       (B) Six months         (C) One year       (D) There is no time limit


42.  The Planning Commission was set up :

(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935

(B) as per the provisions of the Constitution of India

(C) by a Cabinet resolution

(D) as per the recommendations of the National Development Council


43.  Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India ?

(A) Insurance        (B) Fisheries         (C) Agriculture        (D) Gambling


44.  The term of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is :

(A) 6 years      (B) 65 years

(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

(D) None of the above


45.  Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a specific mention of village Panchayats :

(A) Article 19        (B) Article 21        (C) Article 40        (D) Article 246


46.  Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdictipn of the State Governments ?

(A) Corporation Tax      (B) Customs Duty Tax        (C) Sales Tax       (D) Income Tax


47.  The special status of Jammu and Kashmir implies that the state has :

(A) separate defence forces

(B) a separate Constitution

(C) a separate judiciary

(D) all of the above


48.  The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of :

(A) Three years      (B) Four years      (C) Five years      (D) Six years or until he attains the age of 65 years


49.  How many types of emergencies have been envisaged by the Constitution ?

(A) 2       (B) 3        (C) 4       (D) 1


50.  The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to :

(A) The President of India

(B) The House of the People

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Rajya Sabha


51.  Repo Rate is the Rate at which

(A) RBI borrows from Commercial banks

(B) RBI lends to commercial banks

(C) RBI borrows from public

(D) None of the above


52.  The specific purpose of Finance Commission to make recommendations in respect of

(A) Financial Liberalisation of the economy

(B) Planned expenditure of the Central and State Govts.

(C) The division and distribution of taxes between the Union and the States

(D) Non-planned expenditure of the Central Govt.


53.  Fiscal Deficit is -

(A) Revenue Receipts + Capital receipts (only recoveries of loan and other receipts) - Total expenditure

(B) Budget Deficit + Government’s market borrowings and liabilities

(C) Primary Deficit + Interest payment

(D) All of the above


54.  M3 money is -

(A) M2 + Net time deposits with banks

(B) M1 + M2

(C) M4 - M1

(D) M1 + savings deposits with post office


55.  Merit goods are those goods in which

(A) The social benefit is much greater than the sum of private benefits to individual consumers

(B) The private benefits is much greater than the social benefit

(C) The Benefits are equal

(D) None of the above


56.  Functions of Money -

(A) Money as a medium of exchange

(B) Money as a unit of account

(C) Money as a standard of deferred payment

(D) All the above three


57.  Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is -

(A) The share of deposits commercial banks must keep with RBI

(B) The share of deposits RBI must keep with Central Govt.

(C) The share of deposits banks give as loan to the industry

(D) None of the above


58.  Who was the Chairman of 13th Finance Commission of India ?

(A) Y. S. P. Thorat        (B) T. S. Vijayan        (C) Vijay Kelker       (D) S. Tendulkar


59.  Primary Deficit is equal to -

(A) Fiscal Deficit + Interest payment

(B) Fiscal Deficit - Interest payment

(C) Budget Deficit - Revenue Deficit

(D) All of the above


60.  MODVAT (Modified Value Added Tax) was introduced in India in -

(A) 1991       (B) 1986        (C) 2009        (D) 2005


61.  From Non-performing Asset (NPA) Banks

(A) Cannot earn any interest

(B) Can earn maximum profits

(C) Make assets of its own 

(D) All of the above


62.  Child Labour Eradicatioa Scheme was introduced in -

(A) 2nd December, 2011      (B) 15th August, 1994       (C) 15th August, 2001       (D) 14th November, 1971


63.  RBI was nationalised on -

(A) 21st January, 1950       (B) 1st January, 1949        (C) 3rd July, 1966       (D) None of the above


64.  Head-quarter of SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank) is located in -

(A) New Delhi       (B) Mumbai         (C) Lucknow        (D)  Kolkata


65.  Excise Duty stamps of Central Govt. are printed in the -

(A) Security printing Press, Hyderabad

(B) Currency Notes Press, Nasik Road

(C) Indian Security Press

(D) Modernised Currency Notes Press


66.  SBI Life Insurance Company is associated with -

(A) SBI and LIC of India

(B) SBI and Bank of Bangladesh

(C) SBI and Cardiff’S. A. of France

(D) None of the above


67.  Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM) was established in -

(A) 1991       (B) 1999        (C) 1982        (D) 2004


68.  Note of Rs.1000 was introduced by RBI in the year

(A) 1991, July       (B) 2000, October        (C) 1999, December        (D) 2005, November


69.  Infrastructure Development Finance Company (IDFC) was established in India in the year -

(A) 1997         (B) 1999         (C) 1998        (D) 2001


70.  Narasimham Committee (Second) is associated with

(A) Sugar Industry Reforms      (B) Fertiliser Industry Reforms

(C) Banking Sector Reforms        (D) None of the above


71.  ‘Fiscal Drag’  implies -

(A) A situtation where inflation pushes income into higher tax bracket creep

(B) The situation of decrease in income taxes

(C) A situation of increase in real purchasing power

(D) None of the above


72.  Expenditure for Public Admistration is under -

(A) Plan expenditure        (B) Non-plan expenditure       (C) Profitable expenditure       (D) None of the above


73.  Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) is levied on the employer for -

(A) The benefits that are usually enjoyed collectively by the employees and cannot be attributed to individual employees

(B) The benefits enjoyed by individual employees

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) None of the above


74.  Fiscal Policy is that part of Govt. policy which is -

(i) Concerned with raising revenue taxation and Govt. spending

(ii) In regard to taxation and spending program

(iii) Govt. spending policies that influence macro economic conditions

(iv) For dealing with the budget especially with taxation and borrowing.

Which one of the above statements is true ?

(A) Only (i)        (B) (i) and (ii)        (C) All of the above       (D) None of the above


75.  ‘Credit Card’ is an example of -

(A) Para-Banking Activities

(B) Non-Banking Activities

(C) Operation Research Activities

(D) None of the above


76.  The First Development Financial Institution in lndia -

(A) IFCI       (B) IDBI        (C) SIDBI      (D) ICICI


77.  In LERMS (Liberalisation Exchange Rate Management System) -

(A) 60% of Foreign currency holding was permitted to be converted on the market rate, whereas remaining 40% on official rate

(B) 40% on Market rate and 60% on official rate

(C) 100% on official rate

(D) None of the above


78.  The time period for the 7th Five Year Plan was -

(A) 1986-91        (B) 1985-90       (C) 1980-85       (D) 1991-96


79.  The share of agriculture and allied sectors in India’s GDP in 2013-14 -

(A) 14.7%       (B) 12.5%        (C) 13.7%        (D) 21%


80.  NABARD was established in-

(A) 4th Five Year Plan period (FYP)        (B) 5th FYP        (C) 6th FYP        (D) 8th FYP


81.  National Income of India is measured by -

(A) C.S.O.      (B) Planning Commission        (C) Finance Ministry      (D) R.B.I


82.  The outline of second Five Year Plan was made by -

(A) B.N.Gadgil        (B) V.K.R. V. Rao        (C) P. C. Mahalanabish        (D) C. K. Vakil


83.  D. A. (Dearness Allowance) is paid on the basis of -

(A) Standard of living       (B) Per capita Income       (C) Consumer Price index      (D) National Income


84.  Growth with Equity and Distributive Justice was the main objective in

(A) 7th Five Year plan       (B) 8th Five Year plan       (C) 9th Five Year plan       (D) 11th Five Year plan


85.  Punjab National Bank was nationalised in

(A) 1969        (B) 1974       (C) 1981      (D) 1990


86.  Which of the following is not a financial regulator

(A) IRDA       (B) AMFI      (C) PFRDA     (D) SEBI


87.  Which of the following plan is meant for constructing houses for rural people

(A) Indira Awaas Yojana

(B) Ambedkar Awaas Yojana

(C) PURA Awaas Yojana 

(D) None of the above


88.  As per 13th Finance Gommission recommendations during 2010-15 transfers to the states from the Central tax pool, are expected to be

(A) Rs. 40,000 crores        (B) Rs. 1,60,850 crores       (C) Rs. 3,18,581 crores       (D) Rs. 5,04,309 crores


89.  C.S.O. has predicted the GDP growth of Indian economy in 2014-15 fiscal year will be -

(A) 4.9%        (B) 5.5%        (C) 3.3%        (D) 7%


90.  CENVAT is associated with -

(A) Direct tax       (B) Income tax       (C) Indirect tax       (D) Service tax


91.  Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Yojana is associated with -

(A) The development of Bihar

(B) Community toilets in slum areas

(C) Construction of houses for low income groups

(D) None of the above


92.  Dalal Street is situated at

(A) Amritsar        (B) New Delhi        (C) Mumbai        (D) Chandigarh


93.  The number of approved share markets in India

(A) 19      (B) 20       (C) 23        (D) 24


94.  Index “Residex” is associated with —

(A) Share prices      (B) Mutual Fund Prices       (C) Inflation index        (D) Land prices


95.  Devaluation of currency by a country is meant to lead to -

(i) expansion of import trade

(ii) promotion of import substitution

(iii) expansion of export trade

(iv) All the above Options :

(A) (i) only         (B) (ii) and (iii)         (C) (i) and (ii)        (D) (iv)


96. Poverty in less developed countries largely due to

(A) Voluntary idleness

(B) Income inequality

(C) Lack of cultural activities

(D) Lack of intelligence of the people


97.  The Indian rupee is fully convertible in respect of

(i) Current account of balance of payments

(ii) Capital account of balance of payments

(iii) Gold

(iv) None of the above Options

(A) (i) only         (B) Both (i) and (iii)         (C) (iii) only         (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)


98.  The states debt does not include -

(A) Loans from State Bank of India

(B) Loans from Central Govt

(C) Provident Funds

(D) Treasury Bills issued to international financial institutions


99.  Which of the following contributes the maximum earnings in Indian Railways —

(A)  Passenger Earnings       (B) Goods Traffic Earnings      (C) Sundry Earnings      (D) Other Coach Earnings


100.  The percentage share of services in GDP at factor cost (at current prices) in 2013-14 in Indian Economy -

(A) 51 %        (B) 47 %        (C) 57 %       (D) 60 %