MCQ on Indian Polity and Economy for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams/etc - I

MCQ on Indian Polity and Economy for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams

1. In which year Constituent Assembly was formed in India ?

    (a) 1945        (b) 1946         (c) 1947        (d) 1948

2. In which year Indian Independence Act was passed ?

    (a) 1945       (b) 1946       (c) 1947       (d) None of these

3. Who, among the following was the ‘Father of the Indian Con­stitution’ ?

    (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad         (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar        (c) Mr. J. L. Nehru        (d) None of these

4. In which year Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constitu­ent Assembly  ?

    (a) 1947        (b) 1948        (c) 1949        (d) 1950

5. The Preamble of the original Indian Constitution contained :

    (a) Sovereign Socialist Republic        (b) Sovereign Democratic Republic

    (c) Sovereign Secular Republic          (d) Sovereign Socialist secular Democratic Republic

6. Within which article(s) The Preamble of Indian Constitutionhas been discussed ?

    (a) Article 1       (b) Article 1-2         (c) Article 1-3        (d) None

7. On the basis of which Article new State can be created in India ?

    (a) Article 1         (b) Article 3         (c) Art. 5       (d) None of these

8. Who, among the following is not associated with Parliament ?

    (a) Lok Sabha members       (b) Rajya Sabha members   

    (c) President of India           (d) Members of State Legislatures

9. The idea of incorporating the Chapter of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from :

    (a) American Constitution       (b) British Constitution       (c) Soviet Constitution       (d) Irish Constitution

10. On the basis of Constitution the Ultimate Source of power in India is :

      (a) Parliament         (b) Union Government        (c) People       (d) None

11. On the basis of Constitution, India has been declared as a :

      (a) Federal Country       (b) Quasi-Federal Country       (c) Unitary Country       (d) Union of States

12. How many types of Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution of India ?

      (a) Eight        (b) Seven        (c) Six        (d) None of these

13. Which one of the following rights is considered most important for the Indians ?

      (a) Right to Equality        (b) Right to Freedom        (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies       (d) None of these

14. Which chapter was incorporated in the Indian Constitution through Amendment ?

      (a) Fundamental Rights        (b) Fundamental Duties       

      (c) Directive Principles of State Policy      (d) Preamble

15. Which one of the following is justiciable : (in Court of Law)

      (a) Fundamental Rights        (b) Preamble        (c) Directive Principles       (d) None of these

16. Which is against federal feature in the Indian constitution ?

      (a) Existence of Union and State Governments

      (b) Existence of a written Constitution

      (c) Provision to have Single citizenship norm for people

      (d) Universal adult Franchise to form Union/State Governments.

17. Which one of the following parts of Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights enjoyable by Indian citizens ?

      (a) Part II        (b) Part III         (c) Part IV         (d) Part IVA

18. Which Article has stated Equality before law for all the citi­zens of India ?

      (a) Article 14       (b) Article 17        (c) Article 19       (d) Article 22

19. The word ‘State’ on the basis of Indian Constitution refers to the territory controlled by :

      (a) The Union Government        (b) State Government      

      (c) Either or both Union and State Governments        (d) None

20. Which one of the following Chapters of Indian Constitution has been considered as ’ Soul of the Constitution’ by experts :

      (a) Preamble        (b) Directive Principles        (c) Fundamental Rights       (d) None of these

21. Which one of the following authorities may not remain associated with the Creation of new State(s) in India ?

      (a) President of India        (b) Lok Sabha        (c) Rajya Sabha 

      (d) Bidhan Sabha of the concerned State(s) from which new state is to be created by altering the boundaries

22. Which one of the following issues has not been directed to be materialized in the Directive Principles of State Policy ?

      (a) Organization of Village Panchayets

      (b) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens of India

      (c) Separation of Judiciary from Execu­tive Department

      (d) Development of scientific temper and humanism among the citizens of India.

23. What is the minimum age to become President of India

      (a) 10 Years          (b) 35 Years        (c) 40 Years        (d) 45 years None of these, (b) 35 Years

24. President of India is elected by :

      (a) Members of Parliament

      (b) Elected Members of the Parliament

      (c) Elected members of the Parliament and Elected members of the Stale Legislatures

      (d) None of these

25. What may be maximum number of nominated members in Par­liament ?

      (a) 2       (b) 10       (c) 14       (d) 22

26. Vice President of India elected by :

      (a) Members of the Parliament        (b) Members of the Parliament and State Legislature

      (c) Members of Lok Sabha and Bidhan Sabha        (d) None of these

27. The Chief function of the Vice President of India is to :

      (a) Assist the President       (b) Work as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha

      (c) coordinate various departments of the Union Government      (d) None of these

28. The other name of Rajya Sabha is not :

      (a) Second Chamber        (b) Upper Chamber        (c) House of the Elders        (d) Final Chamber

29. What should be the minimum age to become a Rajya Sabha member ?

      (a) 25 Years       (b) 30 Years        (c) 35 Years       (d) None

30. What is the minimum age for members of Lok Sabha (House of people) :

      (a) 20 Years         (b) 25 years         (c) 30 years       (d) None

31. The term of Office of a President of India is five years from :

      (a) Day of election        (b) Day of publication of election result

      (c) Day of taking oath of office        (d) None of these

32. What can be the maximum tenure of a particular Lok Sabha ?

      (a) 5 years       (b) 6 years        (c) 7 years       (d) None of these

33. For what period a member of Council of State is elected ?

      (a) 5 years        (b) 6 years        (c) 7 years        (d) None of these

34. Who is entitled to dissolve the House of People ?

      (a) President of India        (b) Union Council of Ministers

      (c) Supreme Court of India      (d) None of these

35. What can be the maximum number of the Parliament ?

      (a) 500       (b) 600       (c) 700        (d) 800

36. A President willing to resign will have to send Letter of resig­nation to the :

      (a) Vice President        (b) Prime Minister        (c) Chief Justice       (d) None

37. Who, among the following, is not a member of the Parliament ?

      (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha       (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

      (c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha        (d) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

38. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution has stated that ‘There shall be a Vice-President of India’ ?

      (a) Article 52       (b) Article 63        (c) Article 64        (d) Article 74

39. Who may hold office without being elected ?

      (a) President        (b) Vice-President        (c) Prime Minister       (d) None

40. From the end of a session of Parliament the next session is to be arranged within a period of :

      (a) 3 months       (b) 4 months       (c) 5 months        (d) 6 months

41. Who is entitled to summon or prorogue session of Parliament :

      (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha       (b) The President of India

      (c) The Prime Minister        (d) None

42. The person entitled to work as the Chairman of a Joint Session of Parliament is :

      (a) The President       (b) The Prime Minister

      (c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha       (d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

43. The salaries and perquisites of the President of India is determined by the :

      (a) Union Cabinet       (b) Union Council of Ministers      (c) Parliament      (d) Supreme Court of India

44. Any dispute regarding the election of President of India is decided by :

      (a) The Parliament        (b) The Supreme Court        (c) Any High Court       (d) Delhi High Court

45. Within what time period the Rajya Sabha is to decide on a Money Bill ?

      (a) Two weeks        (b) one month       (c) 2 months        (d) None

46. A Non-Money Bill is required to be initiated / introduced in :

      (a) Lok Sabha        (b) Rajya Sabha        (c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha       (d) None of these

47. Who is entitled to decide whether a Bill is Money Bill or not ?

      (a) Union Cabinet        (b) Finance Minister        (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha       (d) Any High Court

48. A Bill passed by the Parliament become a Law only after having assent from the :

      (a) Union Law Minister       (b) Chief Justice of India

      (c) President of India       (d) Members of the Union Cabinet

49. Proceedings in either House of the Parliament may be in­quired by :

      (a) Supreme Court       (b) Delhi High Court      (c) Any High Court      (d) None of these

50. An Ordinance promulgated by President remains in force upto :

      (a) Three months       (b) Six months       (c) One year         (d) None

51. A member of the Parliament may deliver his/her speech in the House in :

      (a) Either English or Hindi        (b) Any of the 22 Languages listed in the 8th Schedule of Indian Constitution

      (c) Any language                     (d) All of these

52. The age of retirement of a Supreme Court Judge is :

      (a) 60 years        (b) 62 years       (c) 65 years       (d) 70 years

53. A Judge of the Supreme Court may be removed by the :

      (a) President        (b) Union Cabinet        (c) Parliament      (d) None

54. How many maximum number of States may remain within the legal jurisdiction of a Particular High Court ?

      (a) One        (b) Two       (c) Three        (d) None of these

55. How many maximum number of Ad-hoc Judges may be ap­pointed ?

      (a) 5       (b) 10       (c) 15       (d) None of these

56. Which one of the following types of disputes can not be ini­tiated in the Supreme Court of India for adjudication ?

      (a) Dispute between Union Government and any State

      (b) Dispute between two States or among a number of States

      (c) Dispute between a State and an ordinary citizen

      (d) All the above types of cases may be filed in Supreme Court

57. Under which Article Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed ?

      (a) Article 124        (b) Article 141        (c) Article 148       (d) Article 153

58. Members of Council of Ministers of a State is appointed by :

      (a) Chief Minister        (b) Governor        (c) Chief Justice of High Court of the State      (d) None of these.

59. For what maximum period a non member of State Legislature is entitled to work as a member of Council of Minister of a State ? :

      (a) 3 Months         (b) 6 months         (c) 1 year         (d) None

60. Whal may be the maximum number of Seats in the Bidhan Sabha of a State of India ?

      (a) 200          (b) 300         (c) 400         (d) 500

61. Which one of the following organizations may take final decision to abolish Legislative Council of a State ?

      (a) Governor of the State       (b) Joint session of Bidhan Sabha and Bidhan Parisad of the State

      (c) The State Council of Ministers        (d) The Parliament

62. Which one of the following Union Territories of India has got a Legislative Assembly ?

      (a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands       (b) Pondocherry       (c) Chandigarh      (d) None of these

63. What is the minimum and maximum range of population re­quirement for the creation of a State in India ?

      (a) 5 lakh - 5 Crore       (b) 5 lakh - 10 crore       (c) 10 lakh - 15 crore       (d) None of these.

64. Maximum Life Span of a Legislative Assembly may be :

      (a) 5 years        (b) 6 years       (c) 7 years       (d) None of these

65. Governor of a State is not required to address the members of State Legislature at the commencement of session at :

      (a) The first session of each general election for the State         (b) The first session of each year

      (c) Each Monsoon Session          (d) None of these

66. Advocate General of a State is appointed by the :

      (a) Law Minister of the State        (b) Chief Minister of the Slate

      (c) Governor of the State      (d) President of India

67. The Official language of a High Court of an Indian State is :

      (a) English only        (b) Both English and Hindi

      (c) English, Hindi and the language(s) of the State        (d) None

68. District Judges of a State of India are appointed by the :

      (a) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court       (b) Governor of the concerned State

      (c) Union Law Minister         (d) President of India.

69. Who among the following, is not entitled to become appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

      (a) Persons having the experience of at least 5 years as a Judge of one or more High Courts

      (b) Person having experience of 10 year as advocate of one or more High Courts

      (c) A ‘distinguished jurist’  in the opinion of the President

      (d) An efficient Officer of the Law Ministry of India

70. Who, among the following is not entitled to become appointed as a judge of a High Court in India ?

      (a) Person having at least 10 years experience as Judicial Officer in India

      (b) Person having at least 10 years experience as Advocate in one or more High Court

      (c) A ‘Distinguished Jurist’ in the opinion of the Governor of the State

      (d) None

71. Under which Article of the Constitution a High Court of India is empowered to issue writs in the form of orders/directions upon the Governmental authorities of Union / State Government ?

      (a) Article 214       (b) Article 226       (c) Article 239      (d) None of these

72. Who, among the following is the Chief Executive of the Union Territories of India ?

      (a) Prime Minister       (b) President        (c) Lt. Governor        (d) None

73. The areas of activities which have not been kept listed in Union List, State List or Concurrent List are done by :

      (a) Union Government        (b) State Governments

      (c) Jointly by Union and State Governments     (d) None of these

74. Consolidated Fund and Contingency Fund of the Union Government of India are controlled by the :

      (a) The President       (b) The Prime Minister      (c) Union Finance Minister     (d) Reserve Bank of India

75. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are disbursed from :

      (a) Consolidated Fund        (b) Contingency Fund        (c) General Fund        (d) Reserve Fund.

76. For what period a Finance Commission of India is constituted ?

      (a) 4 years       (b) 5 years      (c) 6 years      (d) None

77. The members of a Joint Public Service Commission, constituted to recruit employees for a number of States are appointed by

      (a) The Prime Minister        (b) The President

      (c) Governors of the concerned States        (d) Union Human Resources Minister.

78. Which Election is not conducted by the Election Commission of India ?

      (a) President & Vice- President        (b) Parliament

      (c) State Legislature         (d) Panchayets & Municipalities

79. For what period an Election Commissioner is appointed ?

      (a) 5 years        (b) 6 years        (c) 10 years      (d) None of these

80. On the basis of which Article of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is/was constituted ?

      (a) Article  315      (b) Article 324        (c) Article 343    (d) None of These

81. Who is the final authority to impose emergency in India ?

      (a) The President       (b) The Prime Minister        (c) The Parliament       (d) The Union Council of Ministers

82. Which one of the following Articles has not been imposed in India during the past period since Independence ?

      (a) Article 352       (b) Article 356        (c) Article 360       (d) None of these

83. During the period of imposition of articles the salaries and privileges of Government employees can be reduced by the Government :

      (a) Article 352       (b) Article 360        (c) Article 368       (d) None

84. Article 352 can be imposed only when India or part of India a situation of :

      (a) War or external aggression       (b) Armed rebellion 

      (c) Imminent possibilities of war or aggression or rebellion

      (d) During all the above noted situations.

85. Article 356 imposed in a State remains in force for a maximum period of …….. without the approval of the Parliament ?

      (a) One month        (b) Two months         (c) Six months        (d) None of these

86. Under which Article of the Constitution, the Union Govern­ment has got a duty to protect any State against external aggres­sion and internal disturbances ?

      (a) Article 353        (b) Article 355        (c) Article 357        (d) Article 358

87. The procedure of Amendment of Indian Constitution may be considered as :

      (a) Fully rigid         (b) Fully flexible         (c) Partly rigid and partly flexible         (d) None of these

88. How many States of India has got separate Constitution

      (a) One       (b) Three       (c) Five        (d) None of these

89. Around how many Articles are there in the Constitution of India :

      (a) 200         (b)300          (c) 400       (d) 500

90. How many Schedules were there in the Original Indian Constitution as was enforced in 1950 ?

      (a) 8        (b) 9       (c) 10        (d) None of these

91. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

      (a) 1st Schedule : Territorial boundaries of States & U.Ts.

      (b) 2nd Schedule : Salaries etc. of High Officials of India

      (c) 3rd schedule : Various forms for oath or affirmation

      (d) 4th Schedule : Allocation of seats for States in Lok Sabha

92. Which one of the following Schedules contains Union List, State List and Concurrent List relating to areas of powers enjoyable by the Union Government and State Governments ?

      (a) 5th Schedule        (b) 6th Schedule         (c) 7th Schedule       (d) 8th Schedule

93. What portion, in minimum can legally form a new group through defection in any House of Parliament/State Legislature from the total number of members belonging to a Political party :

      (a) One-third        (b) half        (c) two-thirds       (d) None of these

94. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Act has been considered as ‘Mini Constitution’ by the critics ?

      (a) 42nd          (b) 44th         (c) 61st       (d) None of these.

95. Which one of the following languages has been placed under 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

      (a) English         (b) Arabic         (c) Sindhi        (d) Pali

96. Which one of the following areas of activities is not within the List - I i.e. The Union List ?

      (a) Post Office Savings Bank        (b) Stock Exchanges        (c) Sea fishing        (d) Public Health and sanitation.

97. Protection of wild animals and birds is within :

      (a) List - I         (b) List - II         (c) List - III       (d) None of these

98. Education of higher nature, Population & Family Planning, Civil Procedure are within :

      (a) List - I        (b) List - II         (c) List - III        (d) None of these 

99. Who is entitled to declare War and Peace in India ?

      (a) The President      (b) The Prime Minister      (c) Chiefs of Armed Forces       (d) Defence Minister of India

100. The Union Council of Ministers of India is responsible for its activities to the :

        (a) Lok Sabha       (b) Rajya Sabha       (c) Parliament       (d) President

101. Which schedule has got names of Indian States and Union Territories ?

        (a) First        (b) Second        (c) Third      (d) None of these

102. In which part of the Indian Constitution ‘Citizenship’ issues are ?

        (a) First        (b) Second         (c) Third       (d) None

103. By which Article the makers of Indian constitution delivered the power to the Parliament to regulate rights of Indian citizenshlp ?

        (a) Article 10       (b) Article 11       (c) Article 12       (d) None of these

104. Which one has not been correctly matched regarding Articles of Constitution :

        (a) Equality before Law : Article 14       (b) Abolition of Untouchability : Article 16

        (c) Abolition of Titles : Article 18          (d) Protection against arrest : Article 22

105. By which Article Citizens of India have been given freedom to manage religious afairs ?

        (a) Article 23        (b) Article 24       (c) Article 25       (d) Article 26

106. Which one is not within the Directive Principles of State Policy ?

        (a) Organisation of Village Panchayats       (b) Protection of integrity of India

        (c) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens       (d) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

107. How many heads of Fundamental duties for Indin citizens have been kept in Indian Constitution ?

        (a) 8       (b) 10       (c) 12      (d) 14

108. Which Article has stated that There shall be a President ol India ?

        (a) Article 52       (b) Article 54        (c) Article 56       (d) None of these

109. How many maximum terms a particular person may be elected as the President of India ?

        (a) Two        (b) Three        (c) Four        (d) None

110. Impeachment Motion against the President is to be passed in each House of the Parliament of India by :

        (a) Simple majority number of members of the House

        (b) Two thirds majority of the voting members

        (c) Two-thirds majority ol the total members

        (d) Three-fourths majority of voting members

111. On the basis of latest rule the number of members of the Union Council of Ministers of India may be maximum :

        (a) 10% of total numbers of Parliament

        (b) 15% of total numbei of members of the Parliament

        (c) 10% of total number of members of the Lok Sabha

        (d) 15% of total members of the Lok Sabh

112. Within which Article it has been stated that Union Council of Ministers is to aid and advise the President of India ?

        (a) Article 74      (b) Article 76       (c) Article 78       (d) None of these

113. The President of India has got the constitutional obligation to assent any Proposal forwarded by the Union Council of Minister or Union Cabinet for the :

        (a) First time        (b) Second time        (c) Third time        (d) None of these

114. On the basis of which Article the Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India ?

        (a) Article 76       (b) Article 80       (c) Article 84      (d) None of these

115. What may be the maximum number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of provision of Constitution of India ?

        (a) 250        (b) 238        (c) 232       (d) None of these

116. Minimum number of members of the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) from an Indian State may be :

        (a) 1       (b) 2        (c) 3         (d) None

117. In India minimum number of session of Parliament in a year may be :

        (a) 1        (b) 2        (c) 3        (d) 4

118. Who is the entitled to address or to take part in the proceeding in both the Houses of Parliament ?

        (a) Chief Election Commissioner       (b) Advocate General

        (c) Attorney General         (d) Comptroller & Auditor General

119. Speaker of the Lok Sabha willing to resign the post is to the resignation letter to the ?

        (a) President of India         (b) Prime Minister of India       

        (c) Chief Justice of India       (d) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

120. Who among the following, should have qualification to become appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

        (a) Advocate General       (b) Attorney General        (c) Union Law Minister       (d) None of these

121. An Impeachment proceeding is to be passed to remove :

        (a) Advocate General      (b) Attorney General       (c) Comptroller & Auditor General      (d) None of these

122. Under which Article a Governor is to remain for each State of India :

        (a) Article 148       (b) Article 153       (c) Article l57      (d)  None of these

123. Which organisation is entitled to inquire into the proceeding of a State Legislature ?

        (a) High Court       (b) Supreme Court        (c) Parliament       (d) None

124. Which authority is entitled to allow creation of Legislature for Union Territories of India ?

        (a) The President        (b) The Union Council of Ministers       (c) The Parliament       (d) None of these

125. On the basis of provision of which Article of the constitution the States of India have got obligation to frame laws in compliance with the laws enacted by the Parliament of India ?

        (a) Article 226        (b) Article 236       (c) Article 246       (d) Article 256

126. On the basis of which Article the Finance Commission of In­dia is constituted ?

        (a) Article 280        (b) Article 282        (c) Article 283      (d) Nono

127. On the basis of Article 300, an Indian citizen is entitled to file suit against :

        (a) The President of India        (b) The Prime Minister o| India

        (c) The Union of India         (d) The Union Cabinet of India

128. A member of Union Public Service Commission of India is appointed by the President of India for a period of :

        (a) 4 years        (b) 5 years        (c) 6 years       (d) None of these

129. For how many terms a person may be appointed as a member of the Union Public Service Commission or a State Public Service Commission :

        (a) One       (b) Two       (c) Three       (d) None

130. Expenses in the form of salaries of members of the Public Service Commission and others are payable from the :

        (a) General fund        (b) Consolidated fund       (c) Contingency fund       (d) None of these

131. On the basis of which Article the Election Commission of India is constituted ?

        (a) Article 324       (b) Article 343       (c) Article 344       (d) None of these

132. Which Article of the Constitution of India is associated with the declaration of the official language of the Union of India ?

        (a) Article 342        (b) Article 343        (c) Article 344       (d) None of these

133. Which Article has declared that English would remain as Ianguage to be used in Supreme Court and High Courts of India ?

        (a) Article 348        (b) Article 350       (c) Article 351       (d) None of these

134. Without approval of the Parliament the National Emergency under Article 352 may remain enforced for a maximum period of

        (a) 1 month         (b) 2 months         (c) 3 months       (d) 6 months

135. Without approval of the Parliament the Presidential rule imposed in a State under Article 356 remain enforced for a maximum period of :

        (a) 1 mouth        (b) 2 months        (c) 3 months         (d) None of these

136. Provisions for administration of Scheduled Areas have been within :

        (a) 4th schedule        (b) 5th schedule        (c) 6th schedule        (d) None

137. Which one is not within the State List :

        (a) Local Government        (b) Audit account of States        (c) sanitation         (d) Prisons

138. Which one is not within Concurrent list ?

        (a) Criminal procedure        (b) Professional tax       (c) Higher education       (d) Newspapers

139. Decision regarding the number of judges for a High court is finally taken by :

        (a) The Chief Justice of India         (b) The President of India      

        (c) The Chief Justice of the High Court       (d) The Governor of the State

140. By which Constitutional Amendment ‘Right to Property’ was declared as a legal right in India ?

        (a) 42nd        (b) 43rd         (c) 44th        (d) None of these

141. In which year first General election was started in India ?

        (a) 1950        (b) 1951        (c) 1952        (d) None of these

142. Who took pioneering steps to integrate several hundred Native States of the British period within the Indian Union ?

        (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad        (b) C. Rajagopalachari       (c) Sardar Ballavbhai Patel       (d) None of these

143. In which year Panchsheel Agreement was signed ?

        (a) 1954       (b) 1955        (c) 1956       (d) None of these

144. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

        (a) Life Insurance Business Nationalization  :  1956

        (b) State Reorganization Act of India introduced  : 1957

        (c) Metric System of Weights and Measures introduced  : 1958

        (d) Portuguese enclaves of Goa etc. occupied by India  : 1961

145. In which year Lai Bahadur Shastri become Prime Minister of India ?

        (a) 1963        (b) 1964       (c) 1965      (d) None of these

146. In which year Mrs. Indira Gandhi emerged as the Prime Minister of India ?

        (a) 1966        (b) 1967        (c) 1968        (d) None of these

147. Who worked as the Second President of Union of India ?

        (a) S. Radhakrishnan        (b) Dr. Zakir Hossain         (c) V.V. Giri        (d) None of these

148. In which year of the following India did not face war with Pakistan

        (a) 1947       (b) 1962       (c) 1965       (d) 1971

149. How many private banks were nationalized in First Phase ?

        (a) 6       (b) 10       (c) 14       (d) None of these

150. In which year National Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution was promalgated in India by the Govt. of PM Mrs. Indira Gandhi ?

        (a) 1974       (b) 1975        (c) 1976        (d) None of these

151. In which year Mr. Morerji Desai became Prime Minister of India ?

        (a) 1977       (b) 1978       (c) 1979      (d) None of these

152. Around what percentage of Indian people belong to SC/ST group ?

        (a) 22%        (b) 26%        (c) 35%        (d) 40%

153. Local Self-Government system in villages originated during ?

        (a) Vedic period       (b) Muslim Period       (c) British Period       (d) Post independent period.

154. The British rulers took steps to develop :

        (a) Municipalities        (b) Town Corporation        (c) District Councils         (d) None of these

155. Which one of the following Committees advocated the formation of Village Self Government system in rural India ?

        (a) B. R. Mehta Committee        (b) Mondal Commission        (c) Sarkaria Commission       (d) None of these.

156. Generally how many tiers are there in the existing Panchayet system in major number of States of India ?

        (a) Two        (b) Three       (c) Four       (d) None of these

157. Who among the following are not associated with a Panchayet Samity (constituted for an area of a block within a District) ?

        (a) Chairman of all the village Panchaycts of the concerned area

        (b) Block Development Officer of the concerned area

        (c) MLA and MP of the concerned area

        (d) None of these

158. By which Amendment of the Constitution one-third of total seats in all the Panchayets was made reserved for women ?

        (a) 73rd         (b) 74th       (c) 75th       (d) None of these

159. Which one of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution contains the area of activities of Panchayets ?

        (a) 9th       (b) 11th       (c) 12th       (d) None of these

160. How many types of Municipalities have been arranged for urban areas of India ?

        (a) One       (b) Two        (c) Three       (d) None of these

161. Through which one of the following Articles the Governmen­tal authorities have been directed to organise Village Panchayets ?

        (a) Article 40       (b) Article 45       (c) Article 48        (d) None

162. Who, among the following, strongly advocated and urged the British rulers of India to introduce Panchayets in rural areas ?

        (a) Motilal Nehru        (b) M. K. Gandhi         (c) Binobha Bhave        (d) None of these

163. Which one of the following States did not organise Village Panchayets at an early stage in the independent India ?

        (a) Andhra Pradesh         (b) Rajasthan         (c) Bihar        (d) None

164. Who are associated with ‘Gram Sabha’ in a Panchayet area ?

        (a) All the members of the Panchayet        (b) All the adult persons of the area

        (c) All the adult male persons of the area        (d) All the graduates of the area

165. From which one of the following sources a Panchayet does not receive financial resources ?

        (a) Taxes and fees         (b) Financial aid from Union Government

        (c) Financial aid from State Government        (d) External loan

166. For what period of time a Panchayet or Municipal Committee are organised ?

        (a) 5 years        (b) 6 years        (c) 10 years       (d) None

167. Panchayet/Municipal Elections are organised by :

        (a) Election Commission        (b) State Government      (c) Union Government       (d) None of these

168. Any State having population below …….. has been kept outside the obligation to organise 3-tier Panchayet System

        (a) 10 lakh        (b) 20 lakh         (c) 50 lakh         (d) None of these

169. Which one of the following Part of the Indian Constitution deals with 3 tier Panchayet system in India ?

        (a) Part VIII        (b) Part IX        (c) Part X        (d) None of these

170. Which one of the following is not generally found in a vilIage Panchayet ?

        (a) Acute shortage of financial resources

        (b) Tight control by the State Government

        (c) Infiltration of Party politics   

        (d) Cordial relations between Panchayet Officials and people.

171. How many tiers in Panchayet System was proposed by Ashok Mehta Committee which submitted its report in 1978 on the ways to improve functions of Panchayet system ?

        (a) Two        (b) Three       (c) Four        (d) None of these

172. Block Development Officer (BDO), who works as the Chief person tp regulate the activities of Panchayet Samity is generally :

        (a) Elected by voters       (b) Deputed by State Government

        (c) Deputed by Planning Commission       (d) None of these

173. Which one of the following types of cases can be decided by Panchayet of rural areas ?

        (a) Civil       (b) Criminal        (c) Income Tax        (d) None of these

174. In which year Indian Satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched ?

        (a) 1972       (b) 1973        (c)1974       (d) 1975

175. In which year India tested first Nuclear Bomb ?

        (a) 1972        (b) 1974       (c) 1976      (d) None of these

176. In which year Sikkim joined as a State of Indian Union ?

        (a) 1974        (b) 1975        (c) 1976       (d) None of these

177. In which year Sqn. Ldr. Rakesh Sharma travelled in Space ?

        (a) 1982       (b) 1983       (c) 1984      (d) 1985

178. In which year first Indian woman scaled Mount Everest ?

        (a) 1983        (b) 1984        (c) 1985      (d) None of these

179. Which State was associated with ‘Operation Blue Star’ ?

        (a) Uttar Pradesh        (b) Punjab        (c) Gujrat       (d) None of these

180. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

        (a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi was assassinated in Delhi in 1984

        (b) Union Carbide Gas tragedy of Bhopal occurred in 1985

        (c) Mother Teresa got Nobel Prize for peace in 1979

        (d) Air India Plane with 329 persons crashed on Atlantic in 1985

181. In which year Mr. Rajiv Gandhi (PM) visited China ?

        (a) 1986       (b) 1988        (c) 1990       (d) None of these

182. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

        (a) Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in Sri Perumbudur in 1991

        (b) Disputed structure of Ayodhya demolished in 1992

        (c) Association of South Asian Countries formed in 1988

        (d) Eighth Five Year Plan of India was launched in 1992

183. Which State was associated with ‘Operation Rhino’ ?

        (a) Punjab         (b) Tripura        (c) Assam       (d) None

184. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

        (a) The highest rank of Indian Air Force is Air Chief Marshal

        (b) The Head Quarter of Indian Navy is located in New Delhi

        (c) Agni, Prithvi, Trishul, Akash, Nag all are names of Missiles.

        (d) Agni Missile has got longest range being more than 2000 kms.

185. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

        (a) Arjun : Main Battle Tank        (b) Lakshya : Pilotless Jet Plane

        (c) Pinaka : Multi-barrel mobile rocket launcher for war

        (d) Trishul : A short range surface-to-surface missile

186. Which one of the following Satellites were launched from In­dian Satellite Station of Sriharikota successfully ?

        (a) IRS        (b) INSAT        (c) Bhaskara        (d) None of these

187. The organisation ‘ISRO’ is associated with the issues of :

        (a) Defence        (b) Space       (c) Economy       (d) Agriculture

188. Which one of the following refers to India made Satellites :

        (a) INSAT       (b) PSLV        (c) GSLV       (d) DRDO

189. In which State Sriharikota Rocket Launching Station is located ?

        (a) Tamil Nadu        (b) Andhra Pradesh        (c) Orissa        (d) None

190. Around what percent of Indian people were literate on the basis of 1991 Census report :

        (a) 30%         (b) 40%         (c) 50%         (d) 60%

191. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

        (a) Operation Flood : Flood Control

        (b) Blue Revolution : fish production/catch development

        (c) Operation Black Board : development of mass literacy

        (d) Green Revolution : development in agricultural production

192. How many Universities are there in India (approximately) :

        (a) 150        (b) 200        (c) 250        (d) 400

193. How many Post Offices are there in India ?

        (a) 50 thousand        (b) 1 lakh        (c) 1.5 lakh       (d) 2 lakh

194. In which language highest number of daily newspaper are publiushed in India ?

        (a) English         (b) Hindi         (c) Kannada        (d) Malayalam

195. The smallest administrative unit of India in area is :

        (a) Goa         (b) Andamans         (c) Lakshadweep        (d) Pondicherry

196. Which one of the following is not the name of a News Agency ?

        (a) PTI        (b) UNI        (c) UTI        (d) None of these

197. In which year first feature film of India was released (silenl film) ?

        (a) 1913        (b) 1919        (c) 1931       (d) None of these

198. In which year Radio Transmission started in India ?

        (a) 1927        (b) 1936        (c) 1957        (d) None of these

199. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

        (a) Thakkar Commission : Assassination of Indira Gandhi

        (b) Sarkaria Commission : Central State Relations

        (c) Vohra Commission : Nexus between criminals & Politicians

        (d) Raja Cheliah Commission : Banking Reformation

200. The findings of which one of the following Commission helped to bring the fall of the Government led by Mr. I. K. Gujral :

         (a) Mandal Commission         (b) Jain Commission       (c) Verma Commission        (d) None of these

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